The petitioner, who had responded to the advertisement issued by the U.P. Public Service Commission, Allahabad1 inviting applications for appointments of Civil Judges (Junior Division) in the U.P. Judicial Service, has challenged the ...
1
A.F.R.
Court No.39
Case :- WRIT - A No. - 58554 of 2015
Petitioner :- Anurag Tripathi
Respondent :- U.P.P.S.C. And 2 Others
Counsel for Petitioner :- Anurag Tripathi in person
Counsel for Respondent :- C.S.C.,Ajay Kumar,Mahendra Narain Singh,
Ms. Meenakshi Singh
Hon'ble Dilip Gupta, J.
Hon'ble Amar Singh Chauhan, J.
The petitioner, who had responded to the advertisement issued by
the U.P. Public Service Commission, Allahabad
1
inviting applications for
appointments of Civil Judges (Junior Division) in the U.P. Judicial
Service, has challenged the key answers published by the Commission for
Question No.45 of General Knowledge (First Paper) - 'C' Series as also
Question Nos.10 and 21 of the Law (Second Paper) - 'C' Series of the
preliminary examination 2015.
The selections are made after holding a preliminary examination
and then a main examination followed by interviews. The preliminary
examination was conducted by the Commission on 6 September 2015.
The preliminary examination consisted of General Knowledge and Law
Papers. It was objective in nature, each question containing four options
out of which one option had to be selected by the candidates as the
correct answer. The General Knowledge paper was of 150 questions
carrying one mark each, while the Law Paper contained 150 questions
carrying two marks each. Thus, the total marks of General Knowledge
1the Commission
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were 150 while that of Law Paper were 300. The result of the preliminary
examination was declared on 29 September 2015.
Initially, the key answers of the aforesaid papers were displayed on
the website of the Commission from 12 September 2015 and objections
were invited from candidates. In order to examine the objections, two
separate subject expert Committees were constituted by the Commission.
The Expert Committee, after considering the objections raised by the
candidates, deleted certain questions and marks have been awarded to
them on the basis of a formula which is as follows:
total number of marks X No. of correct answer given by the candidate
Total marks obtained = ________________________________________________________
total number of questions – number of deleted questions
The petitioner, who belongs to the general category, obtained 70
marks in General Knowledge Paper and 230 marks in Law Paper. Thus,
in total he obtained 300 marks whereas the cut off mark for the general
category was declared as 301. The main examination was conducted by
the Commission on 29 October 2015 and the petitioner was permitted to
appear at the main examination in view of the interim order dated 15
October 2015. The Court has been informed that interviews are being
conducted.
The petitioner has raised doubts on the answers to Question No.45
of General Knowledge paper and Question Nos.10 and 21 of Law paper-
'C' Series. Question 45 of General Knowledge (First Paper)-'C' Series
with the four options is as follows:
“45. Badrinath is located in
(a) Kumaun Himalaya
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(b) Central Himalaya
(c) Himadri
(d) Trans-Himalaya”
The Commission had earlier declared option '(a)-Kumaun
Himalaya' as the correct answer to Question No.45 of the General
Knowledge Paper but subsequently the Expert Committee constituted by
the Commission to examine the objections submitted by the candidates
who had appeared in the preliminary examination, modified it to option
'(b)-Central Himalaya'.
The contention of the petitioner, who has appeared in person, is
that option '(a)-Kumaun Himalaya' which was earlier declared by the
Commission is the correct answer and option '(b)-Central Himalaya'
which was subsequently modified by the Commission is not the correct
answer.
The Commission has produced the report submitted by the Expert
Committee after examining the objections raised by the candidates. This
report mentions that after the separation of Uttarakhand from Uttar
Pradesh, the Central Himalaya in Uttarakhand has been divided into two
(i) Garhwal Himalaya and (ii) Kumayun Himalaya. Since Badrinath is
located in Chamoli District of Garhwal Himalaya which forms part of
Central Himalaya and Central Himalaya includes Kumaun Himalaya,
Garhwal Himalaya and Himadri, the nearest correct answer is Central
Himalaya.
This report has been seriously disputed by the petitioner and it is
sought to be contended that Badrinath falls in Kumaun Himalaya and not
4
Central Himalaya. In support of his contention, the petitioner has placed
reliance upon certain books namely, 'Bhugol - Ek Samagra Addhyan' by
Mahesh Kumar Barnwal, 'Encylopaedia Britannica', 'Bharat Ka Bhugol'
by R.C. Tiwari, 'Geography of India' by Ram Chandra Tiwari, 'Bharat Ka
Bhugol' by Ramesh Singh and has contended that in all these books it has
been clearly stated that Badrinath village and Shrine in northeastern
Uttarakhand State is situated in Kumaun Himalaya. According to the
petitioner, all these books emphasise that Kumaun Himalaya extends
from river Satluj to the river Kali covering a length of about 320 kms. and
its highest peak is Nanda Devi (7818 mts). The peaks also include
Badrinath at 7069 mts, Kedarnath at 6940 mts, Trisul at 7120 mts and
others. The petitioner also contends that these books also emphasise that
Central Himalaya stretches from river Kali to river Tista covering a
distance of about 800 kms. and major part of it lies in Nepal except the
Sikkim Himalaya and Darjeeling Himalaya in West Bengal and does not
include Badrinath.
Faced with the report submitted by the Expert Committee
constituted by the Commission and the books placed before the Court by
the petitioner in person in regard to the location of Badrinath in the
Himalayas, we called upon learned counsel appearing for the
Commission and the petitioner in person to place before the Court any
other relevant material since the issue that is required to be decided is
whether Badrinath falls in Kumaun Himalaya or Central Himalaya. Ms.
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Meenakshi Singh, learned counsel for the State has also very ably assisted
the Court in this matter and has placed the relevant material.
Himalayas have been divided on regional basis. They are Punjab
Himalayas, Kumaun Himalayas, Nepal Himalayas, Assam Himalayas,
Western Himalayas, Central Himalayas and Eastern Himalayas. We are
concerned with the Kumaun Himalayas and Central Himalayas and they
are described as follows:
“Kumaun Himalayas - Between the Satluj and the
Kali rivers is the 320 km long Kumaun Himalaya. Its
western part is called Garhwal Himalaya and the
eastern part is known as Kumaun Himalaya. The
general elevation is higher as compared to Punjab
Himalaya. Nanda Devi, Kamet, Trisul, Badrinath,
Kedamath and Gangotri are important peaks. Kumaun
Himalaya is also the sources of sacred rivers like the
Ganga and the Yamuna. There are several duns
between the Middle Himalayas and Shiwalik Hills.
Nainital and Bhimtal are important lakes.
Central Himalayas- The Central Himalayas extends
from Kali river in the west to the Tista river in the
east. It stretches from the distance of about 800 km.
All the three Ranges of the Himalayas are present
here. The Great Himalaya range attains maximum
height in this portion. It is the abode of some of the
highest and famous peaks of the world like Mount
Everest, Kanchanjunga, Makalu, Annapurna and
Dhaulagiri are located here. The Lesser Himalaya is
known as Mahabharat Lekh in this region. The range
is crossed by rivers like Ghagara, Gandak, Kosi, etc.
In between the Great and the Lesser Himalayas, there
are Kathmandu and Pokhra valleys which represent
lacustrine deposit.”
With regard to the location of Badrinath vis-a-vis the State of
Uttarakhand, the report of the Expert Committee mentions that since
Badrinath is located in Chamoli District of Garhwal Himalaya which
forms part of Central Himalaya and Central Himalaya includes Kumaun
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Himalaya, Garhwal Himalaya and Himadri, the nearest correct answer is
Central Himalaya. This is obviously a wrong reading. Central Himalaya
does not include Kumaun Himalaya as they are two separate regions of
Himalayas. The relevant books produced before the Court by the
petitioner in person clearly support the position that Badrinath is located
in Kumaun Himalaya which lies between Satluj and Kali rivers and not in
Central Himalaya.
'Encylopaedia Britannica' mentions that Badrinath is situated in
Kumaun Himalayas and it is as follows :
“Badrinath, village (uninhabited in winter) and
shrine in northeastern Uttarakhand state, northern
India. It is situated in the Kumaun Himalayas along a
headstream of the Ganges (Ganga) River, at an
elevation of about 10,000 feet (3,000 metres). It is
located along the twin mountain ranges of Nar and
Narayan on the left bank of Alakananda River.”
The other publications produced by the petitioner are in Hindi and
are to the same effect.
Ms. Meenakshi Singh, learned counsel appearing for the State has
produced materials which support the case of the petitioner that Badrinath
is located in Kumaun Himalaya and not in Central Himalaya. The extracts
of 'Geography of India' by R.C. Tiwari, which have been placed by the
learned counsel in regard to Kumaun Himalaya and Central Himalaya,
are as follows:
“3. The Kumaun Himalayas - The Kumaun
Himalayas lie between the Satluj and the Kali rivers,
stretching to a length of 320 km and occupying an
area of about 38,000 sq. km. Its highest peak is Nanda
Devi (7817 m). Among the other peaks Kamet (7756
7
m), Trisul (7140 m), Badrinath (7138 m), Kedamath
(6940 m), Dunagiri (7066 m), Jaonli or Shiving (6638
m), and Bandarpunch (6320 m) and important.
Gangotri, Milam and Pindar are the main glaciers of
Uttarakhand. The important hill stations include
Mussorrie, Nainital, Ranikhet, Almora and
Bageshwar. The Kumaun Himalayas are connected to
Tibet by a number of passes namely, Mulinga-La
(5669 m), Pana Pass, Niti Pass (5068 m), Tun-Jun-La,
Shalsal Pass, Balcha Dhura, Kungrinbingri Pass,
Lampiya Dhura, Mangsha Dhura, Marhi La (4993 m)
and Lipu Lekh.
4.The Central Himalayas – This range stretches
from river Kali to river Tista for about 800 km
occupying an area of about 1,16,800 sq. km). A major
part of it lies in Nepal except the extreme part called
Sikkim Himalayas and in the Darjeeling District of
West Bengal. All the three Ranges of the Himalayas
are represent here. The highest peaks of the world like
Mount Everest (8850 m), Kanchanjunga (8598 m),
Makalu (8481 m), Dhaulagiri (8168 m), Annapurna
(8075 m), Gosaithan (8014 m) are situated in this part
of the Himalayas. It has very few passes. The passes
of Nathu-La and Jelep-La (4538 m in Sikkim) connect
Gangtok (Sikkim) with Lhasa (Tibet, China)”
Learned counsel for the Commission has not been able to produce
any document or extract from books which may substantiate the case of
the Commission that Badrinath is situated in Central Himalaya. The
report of the Expert Committee is neither based on any book nor on the
location of Badrinath in relation to Himalaya. It is, therefore, evident that
the answer declared by the Commission at the initial stage that Badrinath
is located in Kumaun Himalaya is the correct answer. The Committee that
was subsequently constituted by the Commission to examine the
objections completely misdirected itself and without any supporting
material wrongly determined that Badrinath is located in Central
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Himalaya. In the face of overwhelming evidence that has been brought on
record, we have no doubts that Badrinath is located in Kumaun Himalaya.
The next issue that has been raised by the petitioner is with regard
to two questions of Law (Second Paper)- 'C' Series, being question
Nos.10 and 21.
Question No.10 with its options is as follows;
“10. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the defence of
'Consent' is not available in cases of
(a) Consent to cause death
(b) Consent to cause grievous hurt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above”
In regard to the aforesaid question, the correct answer indicated by
the Commission is option '(c)'. According to the petitioner, the correct
answer is option '(a)'. Objections had been invited and the Expert
Committee also maintained the earlier view that option '(c)' is the correct
answer. The defence of consent is not available in cases of consent to
cause death and consent to cause grievous hurt both and, therefore, option
'(c)' is the correct answer. The petitioner is, therefore, not justified in
contending that option '(a)' is the correct answer.
The petitioner has also assailed the answer to Question No.21 of
Law Paper. Question No.21 with its options is as follows:
“21. In a case of breach of terms on which injunction
was granted under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the
Court may pass an order of
(a). attachment and sale of property,
(b). attachment of property and detention in civil
prison
(c). arrest and detention in civil prison for 3 months
(d). (a) and (c) both”
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The correct answer initially published by the Commission to the
aforesaid question is option '(b)' and this was maintained even after the
objections. According to the petitioner, the correct answer is option '(d)'.
The answer declared by the Commission is correct because in a case of
breach of terms on which injunction was granted, the Court may pass an
order for attachment of the property and detention in civil prison. The
petitioner is, therefore, also not justified in asserting that option '(d)' is the
correct answer.
The issue before the Court is whether it would be appropriate for
the Court to interfere with the answers given by an Expert Body. Learned
counsel for the Commission has placed reliance upon the judgment of the
Supreme Court in H.P. Public Service Commission Vs. Mukesh
Thakur and another
2
and a Division Bench of this Court in Gulab
Chand Bharati Vs. U.P. Public Service Commission, Allahabad and
another
3
, to support his contention that the Court should restrain itself
from entertaining pleas regarding correctness of answers as it is for the
expert body like the Public Service Commission to determine them.
Learned counsel for the petitioner has, however, placed reliance
upon the decisions of the Supreme Court in Kanpur University, through
Vice-Chancellor and others Vs. Samir Gupta and others,
4
and Rajesh
Kumar and others Vs. State of Bihar and others
5
, to support his
contention that the key answers given by the expert body can be
examined by Courts on the basis of information contained in the text
2(2010) 6 SCC 759
3 2016 (2) ADJ 701 (DB)
4(1983) 4 SCC 309
5(2013) 4 SCC 690
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books and other documents and that it would be unfair to penalize
students because of wrong key answers.
In the instant case, it needs to be emphasised that the preliminary
examination was an objective test in which one of the four options were
required to be marked by the candidates as the correct answer. Thus, the
answer would either be correct or wrong. It was not a subjective test
where different examiners may award different marks for the same
answer.
In Kanpur University (supra), the Supreme Court examined the
key answer to questions which were doubted by the candidates and
observed:
“16. Shri Kacker, who appears on behalf of the
University, contended that no challenge should be
allowed to be made to the correctness of a key
answer unless, on the face of it, it is wrong. We
agree that the key-answer should be assumed to be
correct unless it is proved to be wrong and that it
should not be held to be wrong by an inferential
process of reasoning or by a process of
rationalisation. It must be clearly demonstrated to
be wrong, that is to say, it must be such as no
reasonable body of men well-versed in the
particular subject would regard as correct. The
contention of the University is falsified in this case
by a large number of acknowledged text-books,
which are commonly read by students in U.P.
Those text-books leave no room for doubt that the
answer given by the students is correct and the key
answer is incorrect .
17.Students who have passed their Intermediate
Board Examination are eligible to appear for the
entrance Test for admission to the medical colleges in
U.P. Certain books are prescribed for the Intermediate
Board Examination and such knowledge of the
subjects as the students have is derived from what is
contained in those text-books. Those text-books
support the case of the students fully. If this were a
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case of doubt, we would have unquestionably
preferred the key answer. But if the matter is
beyond the realm of doubt, it would be unfair to
penalise the students for not giving an answer
which accords with the key answer, that is to say,
with an answer which is demonstrated to be
wrong.”
(emphasis supplied)
In the instant case, we have seen that the key answer supplied by
the Commission to Question No.45 has been proved to be wrong not by
an inferential process of reasoning but it has clearly been demonstrated to
be wrong as no reasonable person well versed in that subject would
regard the answer given by the Commission to Question No.45 as correct.
Thus, when the matter is beyond any doubt, it would be very unfair
to penalise students, if they had opted for an answer, which is
demonstrated to be correct, but has not been found to be correct by the
Commission.
In Rajesh Kumar (supra), the Supreme Court examined an
examination, where 45 model answers out of 100 were found to be
incorrect but the list of selected candidates had already been sent to the
State Government for issuing appointment orders. The writ petitioners
had specifically averred that model key answer which formed the basis
for evaluation was erroneous. The High Court examined as to whether the
model answer was correct or not and the Supreme Court in this
connection observed that the High Court aptly examined the matter and,
on the basis of opinion of experts, found fault with the key answer. It,
therefore, upheld the view taken by the High Court that the result of the
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examination was vitiated. The Supreme Court also observed that if the
result of the examination was vitiated by application of a wrong key
answer, any appointment made on the basis of such a key answer would
be unsustainable. However, as appointments had already been made and
such persons had worked for seven years, the Supreme Court protected
the appointments of such persons who had given wrong answers but
which was declared to be correct by the Examining Body and placed
them at the bottom of the select list. Persons whose answers were found
to be correct by the Court were given the benefit.
In H.P. Public Service Commission (supra), the dispute was with
regard to revaluation of answer sheets. It is as a result of revaluation that
the candidate secured 119 marks and, therefore, was found eligible to be
called for interview. This decision would, therefore, not help the
Commission. The High Court had found that there had been some
inconsistency in framing Question Nos.5 and 8 and in evaluation of the
answer to the said questions. The questions were not objective but subject
in nature. It is in this context that the Supreme Court observed that it was
not permissible for the High Court to re-examine question paper and the
answer sheet itself.
In Gulab Chandra Bharati (supra), the Expert Committee had
proceeded to delete four questions and marks were awarded on the basis
of a formula that had been determined by the Commission. The deletion
of these four questions was called in question. Since no material could be
13
placed by the petitioner to assail the finding of the Expert Committee, the
opinion of the Expert Committee was relied on by the Court.
In the present case, what needs to be noticed is that appointments
have not been made as yet and, as stated by the learned counsel, only
interviews are being held. It is on the basis of the marks declared by the
Commission in the preliminary examination that candidates were called
to appear at the main examination and they have been called for interview
on the basis of the marks awarded in the main examination.
It is clear from the aforesaid discussions that the Commission has
wrongly declared option '(b)' to Question No.45 of General Knowledge
C-Series paper of the preliminary examination to be correct, whereas the
correct answer is 'Kumaun Himalaya'. This error has resulted in the
preparation of an incorrect list prepared by the Commission for calling
candidates to appear at the main examination. The petitioner has appeared
at the main examination on the basis of the interim order passed in this
petition but his result has not been declared.
The issue before the Court is whether relief should be granted to
the petitioner alone or to all the candidates who had appeared at the
preliminary examination but had not been permitted to appear at the main
examination even though they may have secured sufficient marks if the
Commission had determined the correct key answer to Question No.45 of
General Knowledge 'C'-Series.
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It is contended by the learned counsel appearing for the
Commission that only the petitioner should be granted the relief as other
candidates have not approached the Court.
In our considered opinion, it is the duty of the Commission to
award marks on the basis of a correct key answer. When large number of
candidates appear at an examination for seeking appointments and the
selection is very competitive, even one wrong answer to a question can
alter the fate of many candidates. The petitioner may be entitled to appear
at the main examination if he gets 301 marks because the answer to one
question is correct but the Commission has marked it wrong. There may
be number of candidates who could have appeared in the main
examination because of the correct answer given by them to Question
No.45 but which has been found to be incorrect by the Commission. We
are conscious that the main examination has already been held and
interviews are going on but it is also a fact that the final result has not
been prepared. It would be wholly unjust to deprive such candidates who
could not appear at the main examination for this reason. The purity in
the selection process has to be maintained. The mistake committed by the
Commission has to be rectified and the candidates who appeared at the
preliminary examination cannot be made to suffer because of the mistake
of the Commission. Such a course is being adopted as at present
appointment orders have not been issued and only interviews are being
conducted on the basis of the marks of candidates who had appeared at
the main examination and the criteria determined by the Commission. In
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such circumstances, it is considered appropriate to direct that relief
should not be confined to the petitioner alone but to all the candidates
who had appeared at the preliminary examination.
The Court may have taken a different view in restricting the relief
to the petitioner alone if appointments had been offered after the
interviews and such persons had worked for some period of time. If any
mistake can be corrected before the appointment is made, it should be
corrected because candidates should not be made to suffer on account of
such discrepancy. In Rajesh Kumar (supra), the Supreme Court pointed
out that the High Court was justified in moulding the relief prayed for and
issuing directions considered necessary not only to maintain the purity of
the selection process but to also ensure that no candidate earned an
undeserved advantage over others by applicable of an erroneous key. The
observations of the Supreme Court are as follows:
“15. …...............The writ petitioners, it is evident, on a
plain reading of the writ petition questioned not only
the process of evaluation of the answer scripts by the
Commission but specifically averred that the “Model
Answer Key” which formed the basis for such
evaluation was erroneous. One of the questions that,
therefore, fell for consideration by the High Court
directly was whether the “Model Answer Key” was
correct. The High Court had aptly referred that
question to experts in the field who, as already
noticed above, found the “Model Answer Key” to
be erroneous in regard to as many as 45 questions
out of a total of 100 questions contained in ‘A’
series question paper. Other errors were also found
to which we have referred earlier. If the key which
was used for evaluating the answer sheets was itself
defective the result prepared on the basis of the
same could be no different. The Division Bench of
the High Court was, therefore, perfectly justified in
holding that the result of the examination insofar
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as the same pertained to ‘A’ series question paper
was vitiated. This was bound to affect the result of
the entire examination qua every candidate
whether or not he was a party to the proceedings.
It also goes without saying that if the result was
vitiated by the application of a wrong key, any
appointment made on the basis thereof would also
be rendered unsustainable. The High Court was, in
that view, entitled to mould the relief prayed for in
the writ petition and issue directions considered
necessary not only to maintain the purity of the
selection process but also to ensure that no
candidate earned an undeserved advantage over
others by application of an erroneous key.”
(emphasis supplied)
It is in this context that the Supreme Court also observed that the
most natural and logical way for correcting the evaluation of the scripts
was to correct the key and get the answer scripts re-evaluated on the basis
thereof and there was no necessity of holding a fresh examination. Such a
process would also not give any unfair advantage to any candidate.
However, the Supreme Court protected the interest of the candidates who
had already been appointed and had worked for seven years and the
observations are :
“21. ............. It goes without saying that the appellants
were innocent parties who have not, in any manner,
contributed to the preparation of the erroneous key or
the distorted result. There is no mention of any
fraud or malpractice against the appellants who
have served the State for nearly seven years now.
In the circumstances, while inter-se merit position
may be relevant for the appellants, the ouster of
the latter need not be an inevitable and inexorable
consequence of such a re-evaluation. The re-
evaluation process may additionally benefit those
who have lost the hope of an appointment on the
basis of a wrong key applied for evaluating the
answer scripts. Such of those candidates as may be
ultimately found to be entitled to issue of
appointment letters on the basis of their merit shall
17
benefit by such re- evaluation and shall pick up
their appointments on that basis according to their
inter se position on the merit list.”
(emphasis supplied)
It also needs to be noted that only a very limited number of
candidates will be disturbed. Each question of General Knowledge paper
is of one mark only and only answers to two questions, one in this
petition and other in the connected petition bearing Writ Petition
No.57187 of 2015 (Rohit Nandan Shukla Vs. U.P.P.S.C. & Anr.), which
has also been decided by order of date, have been found to be incorrect.
It would, therefore, be just and proper for the Court to direct the
Commission to determine the marks of all the candidates, who had
appeared at the preliminary examination, on the basis of the correct
answer to Question No.45 of the General Knowledge 'C' Series paper. In
case, candidates who have not been able to appear at the main
examination but are found to be entitled to on the basis of a fresh
revaluation done by the Commission, the Commission would have to take
appropriate steps for conducting the main examination for such
candidates and consequently hold interviews, if they are entitled to be
called, in accordance with the marks awarded to them at the main
examination and the procedure and guidelines set out for this purpose.
The Commission need not hold the main examination or interviews for
the candidates who have already appeared at the said examination and are
found to be eligible to appear even after the declaration of the revised
result of the preliminary examination but if any candidate has appeared
and is not found to be eligible as he has not secured the requisite marks
18
after the revised result, his candidature can always be cancelled. The
main examination, it is reiterated, should be held only for such candidates
who now become eligible to appear at the main examination after
revision of marks in the preliminary examination but could not appear
earlier. This process should be undertaken at the earliest.
The writ petition, accordingly, succeeds and is allowed to the
extent indicated above.
Date:26.04.2016
SK
(Dilip Gupta, J.)
(Amar Singh Chauhan, J.)
Legal Notes
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