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Manish Sisodia Vs. Central Bureau Of Investigation

  Supreme Court Of India
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Case Background

As per the case facts, the appellant, a former Deputy Chief Minister, sought bail in prosecutions related to alleged offenses under anti-corruption and money laundering acts. Chargesheets were filed by ...

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Document Text Version

2023 INSC 956 Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 1 of 41

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. OF 2023

(ARISING OUT OF SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CRIMINAL) NO. 8167 OF 2023)

MANISH SISODIA ..... APPELLANT

VERSUS

CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION ..... RESPONDENT

W I T H

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. OF 2023

(ARISING OUT OF SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CRIMINAL) NO. 8188 OF 2023)

J U D G M E N T

SANJIV KHANNA, J.

Leave granted.

2. Rule of law means that laws apply equally to all citizens and

institutions, including the State. Rule of law requires an equal right

to access to justice for the marginalised. The rule also mandates

objective and fair treatment to all. Thirdly, rule of law is a check on

arbitrary use of powers. It secures legitimate exercise of power for

public good.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 2 of 41

3. This is precisely the reason why we had heard arguments at some

length in these two appeals filed by the appellant – Manish Sisodia,

former Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi, who seeks bail in the

prosecutions arising from RC No. 0032022A00553, dated

17.08.2022, registered by the Central Bureau of Investigation

1

, at

CBI, ACB, New Delhi, under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

2

and the Indian Penal Code, 1860

3

; and Enforcement Case

Information Report

4

No. HIU-II/14/2022, dated 22.08.2022, filed by

the Directorate of Enforcement

5

, under the Prevention of Money

Laundering Act, 2002

6

.

4. CBI has filed two chargesheets, dated 24.11.2022 and 25.04.2023,

wherein the appellant – Manish Sisodia is named and is facing trial

for the offences under Sections 7, 7A, 8 and 12 of the PoC Act and

Sections 120B, 201 and 420 of the IPC. DoE has filed a criminal

complaint dated 04.05.2023 against the appellant – Manish Sisodia

for the offences under Sections 3 and 4 of the PML Act.

5. A number of legal issues and questions were raised, and do arise,

for consideration, but we would refrain from delving into them in

1

For short, “CBI”.

2

For short, “PoC Act”.

3

For short, “IPC”.

4

For short, “ECIR”.

5

For short, “DoE”.

6

For short, “PML Act”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 3 of 41

depth and detail. However, there is a bounded discussion in the

subsequent portion of the judgment only for deciding the present

appeals and the question as to whether the appellant – Manish

Sisodia is entitled to bail. Nevertheless, for the purpose of record,

we will delineate some of them:

(a) What is the scope and ambit of the constitutional protection

under Articles 74 and 163 of the Constitution of India on the

decisions taken by the Council of Ministers?

(b) Whether on interpretation of Section 3 of the PML Act, ‘the

act/process of generation’ or ‘the attempt to generate the

proceeds of crime’ falls within the ambit of the expressions

‘assist’, ‘acquisition’, ‘possession’ or ‘use’ under Section 3 of

the PML Act? If the answer is in affirmative, what are the legal

consequences as per the Constitution of India, under the Code

of Criminal Procedure, 1973

7

, the IPC, and the General

Clauses Act, 1897?

(c) Whether a person can be prosecuted under the PML Act only

when there is material to show that he has indulged or assisted

in any activity/process of money laundering, albeit an

7

For short, “The Code”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 4 of 41

activity/process different and separate from the scheduled

offence?

(d) Whether an accused, who allegedly has committed the

scheduled offence, can be prosecuted under the PML Act,

when the alleged prime accused and the beneficiary of the

proceeds of crime, a juristic person, is not arrayed as an

accused in the criminal complaint filed by the DoE?

(e) Whether Sections 45 and 50 of the PML Act should be read

down in view of the constitutional scheme and mandate of

Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

6. On behalf of the appellant – Manish Sisodia, the following

submissions have been made:

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia has been in custody from

26.02.2023 in RC No. 0032022A00553 and from 09.03.2023 in

the ECIR No. HIU-II/14/2022.

• CBI had submitted charge-sheet on 25.04.2023 and the DoE had

filed the criminal complaint on 04.05.2023 against the appellant

– Manish Sisodia.

• There are 294 witnesses and about 31,000 pages of documents

in the charge-sheet filed by the CBI. There are 162 witnesses

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 5 of 41

and 25,000 pages of documents in the prosecution complaints

filed by the DoE.

• Arguments on charge have not commenced, and the trial will

take years.

• The new excise policy was validly adopted after due deliberation

by the Council of Ministers/Cabinet in larger and greater public

interest:

o Under the old excise policy there was an incentive to cheat

because of the very nature of liquor - fast selling and highly

taxed. As per the Ravi Dhawan Committee

8

Report dated

13.10.2020, the profit margins could be up to 65-70%, as

the manufacturers were able to acquire retail licenses

through proxy ownership.

o As a check, wholesale licenses were not to be issued to a

manufacturer or retail licence holder, directly or to sister

concerns or related entities.

o 272 wards in 68 Assembly Constituencies were divided into

30 zones. Each zone was to have 9-10 wards with a

maximum of 27 retail vends which were to be allotted on

the basis of auction. Each zone operator was to operate

8

For short, “R.D. Committee”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 6 of 41

two mandatory vends in each ward. The remaining vends

were freehold vends to be operated anywhere within that

zone.

o Auction, with a reserve price equal to the existing license

fee plus sum of potential revenue, estimated VAT and 10%

additional fee for increase on year to year ensured

maximization of revenue.

o The licence fee payable by the wholesaler was raised from

Rs.5,00,000/- (rupees five lakhs only) under the old policy

to Rs.5,00,00,000/- (rupees five crores only), which is an

increase of approximately 10,000%.

o The wholesalers were entitled to a standard distribution fee

at the rate of 12% of the landed price. The landed price or

the ex-distillery price was the lowest price as declared by

the manufacturer in any market in India.

o The standard distribution fee at the rate of 12%, though

higher than the fee under the old policy, was necessary to

cover the higher level of investment required, setting up of

quality checking system, etc. The fee of 12% had also

subsumed several other charges payable under the old

policy.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 7 of 41

• The new policy was drafted in a transparent manner after

deliberation at different levels by Secretaries/Officers of the

Excise, Planning, Finance and Law departments. The revenue

generation was projected at 12%.

• Comments from general public were invited. Around 14,671 e-

mails were received. The comments were considered. As per the

prosecution, 6 e-mails were planted/prompted. This assertion to

establish a criminal offence relying on 0.04% e-mails is

assumptive and overweening.

• The policy was sent to the Lieutenant Governor

9

of the National

Capital Territory

10

of Delhi for comments and recommendation.

The LG gave his recommendation on some aspects. The

Cabinet had considered and accepted the recommendations.

• The new excise policy report prepared by the GoM was accepted

by the Excise Department and the Cabinet of the NCT of Delhi.

It was uploaded on the website on 05.07.2021. It was

implemented only on 17.11.2021.

• Proceeds of crime is the core ingredient for the offence of money

laundering, which expression is required to be construed strictly,

as held in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary and Others v. Union of

9

For short, “LG”.

10

For short, “NCT”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 8 of 41

India and Others

11

. The offence under the PML Act has nothing

to do with the criminal activity, subject matter of the scheduled

offence. PML Act penalises indulging in activity/process relating

to the proceeds of the crime, derived or obtained as a result of

that crime.

• Allegation regarding kickback of Rs.100,00,00,000 (rupees one

hundred crore only), and a portion of it being used for funding

the Aam Aadmi Party

12

, for its election campaign in Goa, is a

concocted story unsupported by any legal and admissible

evidence and material. The money trial is unproven and false.

• Co-accused Rajesh Joshi and Gautam Malhotra have been

granted bail for the offence under the PML Act on the ground that

there was no documentary evidence to show that proceeds of

crime were used for the election purposes.

• To establish the money trail and payment of bribe/kickback of

Rs.100,00,00,000 (rupees one hundred crore only), the DoE has

relied upon the statements made by co-accused or approvers.

These statements are hearsay and do not in any manner

implicate or connect the appellant – Manish Sisodia with the

transfer and use of the proceeds of the crime.

11

(2022) SCC Online 929.

12

For short, “AAP”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 9 of 41

• The statements of co-accused or other witnesses relied upon by

the DoE were extracted and forced by a threat of arrest, as in the

case of Magunta Sreenivasulu Reddy, Butchi Babu and Manoj

Rai. Some of the co-accused like Arun Pillai and Sameer

Mahendru have retracted from their statements.

• Raghav Magunta, son of a Member of Parliament of the ruling

party in Andhra Pradesh, was forced to make the statement

dated 27.07.2023, which is contrary to his earlier statement

dated 16.09.2022.

• Statements obtained from Dinesh Arora, an approver, is weak

evidence and in this regard, reliance is placed upon Ravinder

Singh v. State of Haryana

13

.

• Statement of Dinesh Arora dated 12.07.2023 is contrary to his

earlier statement made on 09.04.2023.

• Allegations regarding the appellant – Manish Sisodia’s

involvement in the grant of licence to Indo Spirit is make belief

and a false assertion. Statements obtained from the officers of

the Excise Department under Section 164 of the Code, namely,

Suman, Sachin Solanki and Arava Gopi Krishna do not implicate

the appellant – Manish Sisodia.

13

(1975) 3 SCC 742.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 10 of 41

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia, in his statement dated

14.03.2023, has stated that he had not instructed the Excise

Commissioner to expedite the clearance of Indo Spirit’s license.

• Interaction and communications between the private parties viz.

business of Indo Spirit was independent, and without any

interference, knowledge and participation of the appellant –

Manish Sisodia.

• Vijay Nair was not associated with the appellant – Manish

Sisodia. There are also contradictions in the statements made

by C. Arvind, under Section 50 of the PMLA, dated 07.12.2022,

and the one under Section 164 of Cr.P.C., dated 16.02.2023.

• Allegation regarding destruction of the cabinet file is nothing but

making a mountain out of a molehill. The three legal opinions,

two by former Chief Justices of India and one by a Law Officer,

on merits or demerits of the old policy, were benign, and of no

consequence and relevance. The allegation is also contrary to

the contemporaneous records maintained by DoE.

7. The CBI and DoE have submitted as under:

• Under the old excise policy:

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 11 of 41

o There was no concept of private wholesaler and no

concept of zones.

14

o The distributor/wholesaler was entitled to 5% profit

margin.

o The retail trade was primarily undertaken by four

corporations of the Government of NCT of Delhi.

• R.D. Committee Report dated 13.10.2020

15

recommended:

o Gradual withdrawal of government presence.

o Wholesale operation under one government entity.

o Three models were examined: (i) existing model, (ii)

licenses vide lottery system, and (iii) licenses to limited

entities.

o Licenses vide lottery system was recommended since

auctioning licenses to limited entities could lead to

cartelisation.

• The R.D. Committee Report dated 13.10.2020 was not preferred

by the appellant – Manish Sisodia. Reliance is placed upon the

statement of C. Arvind

16

dated 16.02.2023 under Section 164 of

the Code, and Rahul Singh

17

dated 03.03.2023 under Section

14

As per the appellant – Manish Sisodia, under the old liquor policy there were private whole-sellers,

which assertion prima-facie appears to be correct.

15

The Expert Committee headed by Ravi Dhawan was constituted on 04.09.2020.

16

Posted as Secretary to appellant – Manish Sisodia between July, 2019 to June, 2022.

17

Erstwhile Excise Commissioner of NCT of Delhi.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 12 of 41

161 of the Code. The appellant – Manish Sisodia had not

accepted the report because of ulterior reasons.

• A conspiracy was entered viz. the new excise policy to enable

supersize profits for wholesale distributors in return for kickbacks

and bribes. To start with:

o Public comments were invited to the R.D. Committee Report

dated 13.10.2020. Some public comments vide emails were

prompted by the appellant – Manish Sisodia to influence the

decision making process. The emails

18

, statement of Zakir

Khan

19

dated 29.03.2023 recorded under Section 161 of the

Code, and screenshots of WhatsApp chats of Kartikey Azad

and Zakir Khan establish the motive. Thus, a facade of

transparency and openness in policy making was created.

o Rahul Singh

20

supports the charge. He was asked to prepare a

cabinet note in a particular manner with comments and

suggestions of the stakeholders and public. The appellant –

Manish Sisodia reprimanded Rahul Singh for annexing the

opinion of legal experts in the cabinet note.

21

C. Arvind’s

18

Emails shared by interns of the Delhi Minorities Commission as public comments to the R.D.

Committee Report.

19

Chairperson of the Delhi Minorities Commission.

20

Erstwhile Excise Commissioner of NCT of Delhi.

21

Statement of Rahul Singh

21

dated 03.03.2023, under Section 161 of the Code.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 13 of 41

statement dated 16.02.2023 under Section 164 of the Code is

similar.

o The appellant – Manish Sisodia, had issued directions to

Sanjay Goel,

22

to prepare a note without the opinion of legal

experts. Reliance is placed on the statement of Sanjay Goel

dated 17.01.2023 under Section 161 of the Code, and the letter

dated 02.02.2023 by the appellant – Manish Sisodia to the

Excise Commissioner.

• The draft GoM Report on new excise policy, as retrieved from the

computer under the control of the appellant – Manish Sisodia was

typed/uploaded on 15.03.2021 and was last modified at 11.27 a.m.

The wholesalers were entitled to a minimum 5% commission on the

landed price. As no upper limit was prescribed, the manufacturers

and wholesale distributors could negotiate and settle for a higher

commission.

• Big manufacturers with high market share and turnover, would not

have agreed to a commission higher than 5%, or commission at the

@ 12% of the landed cost.

• A liquor group from Hyderabad stayed in Delhi from 16.03.2021 to

18.03.2021. Arun Pillai, Abhishek Boinpally, and Sarath Reddy from

22

Excise Commissioner of NCT of Delhi, who had replaced Rahul Singh.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 14 of 41

the liquor group had several meetings with Vijay Nair, who was the

middleman, a member of the AAP, and a close confidant of the

appellant – Manish Sisodia. He was residing in a government

bungalow allotted to a Cabinet Minister, who was a part of GOM.

23

The agenda of the meetings were to decide changes in the excise

policy, to enable them to earn super-profits in return for kickbacks.

o On the evening of 16.03.2021, Abhishek Boinpally and Butchi

Babu, who were staying at Hotel Oberoi, travelled to another

Oberoi hotel in Civil Lines, where they met Vijay Nair, who was

staying in a close proximity. The travel to the Oberoi Hotel in

Civil Lines is established by an invoice

24

, call record details and

statement of an employee of the Oberoi.

25

o A print/photocopy of a 36 page document was made on

16.03.2021 at Hotel Oberoi, Civil Lines, Delhi.

26

o The document/print was taken by Vijay Nair, and handed over

to the appellant – Manish Sisodia. The appellant – Manish

Sisodia gave ‘the print’ to his secretary C. Arvind.

o The altered GoM report dated 18.03.2023 consists of 36 pages,

if one excludes the index and the title page. Reference is made

23

Reliance is placed upon statements made by Arun Pillai, Butchi Babu and Dinesh Arora. Reliance is

also placed on screenshots found in the phone of Manoj Rai, an employee of Pernod Ricard.

24

On 16.03.2021, Rs. 3,000/- had been billed under the description, “Logistic Charges”.

25

Statement of Ibrahim Magdum dated 03.02.2023, under Section 161 of the Code.

26

On 16.03.2021, Rs. 360/- had been billed under the description, “Print/Photocopy”.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 15 of 41

to the statement of C. Arvind dated 16.02.2023, under Section

164 of the Code.

o Screenshots of WhatsApp chats of Butchi Babu dated

20.03.2021, which is prior to submission of the GoM report to

the Cabinet on 22.3.2022, refers to the creation of the new post

of the Director, Wholesale Operation. Based on the

print/document prepared by the liquor group, the GoM report to

the Cabinet was modified to create this post.

o Further, the minimum wholesaler fee of 5% under the draft

dated 15.03.2021, was modified to mandatory and fixed fee of

12% in the altered GoM report submitted to the Cabinet.

• The GoM did not meet between 15.03.2021 and 19.03.2021. There

are neither any deliberations/discussions nor any noting/

calculations by the GoM for increasing the wholesale commission/

fee from 5% to 12%. Reliance is placed on the statement of Arava

Gopi Krishna under Section 164 of the Code. Reliance is also placed

on the statement of Sanjay Goel, dated 11.04.2023, under Sections

50(2) and 50(3) of the PML Act.

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia was unable to provide any rational

explanation for increasing the commission from 5% to 12%.

27

He

27

Statement of Manish Sisodia dated 07.03.2023, under Section 50(2) and 50(3) of the PML Act.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 16 of 41

had stated that even under the old regime there was no calculation

for the 5% margin.

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia had used his influence for grant of

wholesale licence to Indo Spirit, a firm in which the liquor group had

substantial interest. Reliance is placed on the statements made

under Section 164 of the Code by Arava Gopi Krishna, and C.

Arvind, dated 16.02.2023. Reliance is also placed on the statement

of Dinesh Arora, dated 24.11.2022, recorded under Section 306 of

the Code.

• License to Indo Spirit was granted in spite of existing complaints of

cartelisation against the partners of Indo Spirit, namely, Sameer

Mahendru and his wife. The complainant was asked to take back

his complaint.

28

• The license fee payable by the wholesale distributor was fixed at

Rs.5,00,00,000/- (rupees five crores only). The license fee was

deliberately not fixed on the turnover, to facilitate and at the behest

of the liquor group.

• Three big manufacturers held 85% market share. The entire

scheme was a pretence to recoup and get bribe and kickback from

the big wholesale distributors, who acted as the middlemen and

28

Statement of Jagbir Sidhu dated 19.09.2022, under Section 161 of the Code.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 17 of 41

were entitled to fixed commission @ 12% of the landed price on the

turnover, but were required to pay a fixed license fee of

Rs.5,00,00,000/- (rupees five crores only) to the government.

• The manufacturers could appoint and enter into a distributorship

agreement with only one wholesale distributor. They were not

entitled to appoint multiple wholesale distributors. However, the

wholesaler could enter into a contract with more than one

manufacturer. New excise policy was clearly lopsided and favoured

the big wholesale distributors.

• Mahadev Liquor, a contender and wholesale distributor of 14 small

manufacturers having about 20% market share, was forced to

surrender their licence since they were not ready to pay kickbacks.

Mahadev Liquor had business in Punjab and the state machinery of

Punjab Excise Department was used to arm-twist them.

29

• Pernod Ricard, the largest manufacturer, was directed to do

business through Indo Spirit. Reliance is placed upon evidence

collected from the mobile chats, including screenshots, as well as

statements of an employee

30

.

• The plea that the appellant – Manish Sisodia was not in possession

of the proceeds of the crime, should not be accepted as the

29

Statement of Jasdeep Kaur Chadha dated 23.08.2022 under Section 50(2) and 50(3) of the PML Act.

30

Statement of Manoj Rai dated 31.12.2022, under Sections 50(2) and 50(3) of the PML Act.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 18 of 41

expression ‘possession’ includes constructive possession. A person

need not be in actual possession. When a person exercises

dominion or control over a thing, directly or indirectly, through

another person, he is in ‘possession’ over the said thing. The

appellant – Manish Sisodia was a key to the processes and activities

dealing with the proceeds of the crime and in using proceeds of the

crime. He had created an eco-system for generating, concealing

and projecting the tainted money, used subsequently by AAP.

• The kickback or the proceeds of the crime of Rs.100,00,00,000

(rupees one hundred crore only) were received from the liquor

group, and used by the associates of the appellant – Manish Sisodia

and other leaders of AAP.

o Portions of these proceeds of crime were used in the Goa

election campaign through multiple persons and entities. The

attempt was to conceal the true nature of the proceeds of the

crime and to project them as untainted money.

o Part of the proceeds of crime of Rs.100,00,00,000 (rupees

one hundred crore only) were transferred through a complex

web of transactions through hawala route, which have been

traced in spite of erasure of digital and documentary evidence.

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia was unable to produce his two

mobile phones out of three mobile phones used between the period

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 19 of 41

01.01.2021 to 19.08.2022. Only one phone was seized by the CBI

on 19.08.2022, which was being used only since 22.07.2022. He

has deliberately destroyed the evidence.

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia, given his power and political clout,

and being the main accused in the conspiracy, may have the

evidence destroyed, and the witnesses and documents may be

exposed.

• Dinesh Arora’s statement to the DoE dated 14.08.2023, under

Sections 50(2) and 50(3) of the PML Act, had revealed that he had

taken Rs. 2,20,00,000 (rupees two crore twenty lakhs only) from

Amit Arora, for the appellant – Manish Sisodia. This was on account

of favourable change and tweak in the new excise policy.

Analysis

8. Referring to Section 45

31

of the PML Act, in Vijay Madanlal

Choudhary (supra), the three Judges’ Bench has opined that the

31

Section 45 reads:

“45. Offences to be cognizable and non-bailable.— (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), no person accused of an offence under this Act shall be

released on bail or on his own bond unless—

(i) the Public Prosecutor has been given an opportunity to oppose the application for such release; and

(ii) where the Public Prosecutor opposes the application, the court is satisfied that there are reasonable

grounds for believing that he is not guilty of such offence and that he is not likely to commit any offence

while on bail:

Provided that a person, who, is under the age of sixteen years, or is a woman or is sick or infirm or is

accused either on his own or along with other co-accused of money-laundering a sum of less than one

crore rupees, may be released on bail, if the Special Court so directs:

Provided further that the Special Court shall not take cognizance of any offence punishable under

Section 4 except upon a complaint in writing made by—

(i) the Director; or

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 20 of 41

provision does not require that to grant bail, the court must arrive at

a positive finding that the applicant has not committed an offence

under the PML Act. Section 45 must be construed reasonably as

the intent of the legislature cannot be read as requiring the court to

examine the issue threadbare and in detail to pronounce whether

an accused is guilty or is entitled to acquittal. Further, an order on

an application for bail is passed much before the end of trial and

sometimes even before commencement of trial. Lastly, it is trite, that

for the purpose of considering an application for bail, although

detailed reasons are not necessary to be assigned, and, therefore,

the evidence need not be weighed meticulously, a tentative finding

should be recorded on the basis of broad probabilities. The order

granting bail must demonstrate application of mind at least in

serious cases where the applicant has been granted or denied bail.

The findings recorded by the Court for grant or refusing bail being

(ii) any officer of the Central Government or a State Government authorised in writing in this behalf by

the Central Government by a general or special order made in this behalf by that Government.

(1-A) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), or any

other provision of this Act, no police officer shall investigate into an offence under this Act unless

specifically authorised, by the Central Government by a general or special order, and, subject to such

conditions as may be prescribed.

(2) The limitation on granting of bail specified in sub-section (1) is in addition to the limitations under

the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974) or any other law for the time being in force on

granting of bail.

Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is clarified that the expression ‘Offences to be cognizable

and non-bailable’ shall mean and shall be deemed to have always meant that all offences under this

Act shall be cognizable offences and non-bailable offences notwithstanding anything to the contrary

contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), and accordingly the officers authorised

under this Act are empowered to arrest an accused without warrant, subject to the fulfilment of

conditions under section 19 and subject to the conditions enshrined under this section.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 21 of 41

tentative, will not have any bearing on the merits of the case, and

the trial court would proceed and decide the case on the basis of

evidence produced during trial without in any manner being

prejudiced thereby.

9. We have copiously referred to the assertions, arguments and

contentions of both sides, and in terms of the mandate in Vijay

Madanlal Choudhary (supra), we will be examining the allegations

and the legal position to form our tentative opinion. However, we

must notice and take on record at some aspects upfront.

10. First, the assertion that Rs. 2,20,00,000 (rupees two crores twenty

lakhs only) was paid as bribe to the appellant – Manish Sisodia by

Amit Arora, through middleman Dinesh Arora, is not a charge or an

allegation made in the chargesheet filed by the CBI. It may be

difficult to regard the alleged payment as a ‘proceed of crime’ under

the PML Act.

11. Secondly, it has been submitted by the DoE that AAP is a trust and

is a “person” under Section 2(1)(s) of the PML Act. Being a juristic

person, it acts through natural persons. The assertion made is that

a portion of the proceeds of crime were used for the purpose of the

artificial judicial person to fund the election in Goa. The DoE has

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 22 of 41

stated at the Bar, and in the written submissions, that once the

quantum of amount used in the election in Goa is ascertained, a

decision to consider AAP as an accused under Section 3 will be

taken. It is stated by the DoE that the matter in this regard is being

processed. In the written submissions, the DoE states:

“...some of the PoC (Proceeds of Crime) has been used

for the purpose of artificial juridical person through its

office bearers in the election funding of the AAP in Goa

as well for the benefit of office bearers as indicated

above. Once the quantum of amount used for election in

Goa is ascertained a decision to consider AAP as

accused under Section 3 read with Section 70 of the

PMLA (PML Act) shall be taken at that point of time.”

12. Thirdly, the assertion in the complaint filed with the DoE that

kickback of Rs.100,00,00,000 (rupees one hundred crore only) was

actually paid by the liquor group is somewhat a matter of debate.

However, there is an assertion, and the DoE has relied on evidence

and material, that a portion thereof, that is, Rs. 45,00,00,000 (rupees

forty five crores only) was transferred through Hawala for the Goa

election and used by AAP, a political party, which is a juristic

person.

32

AAP is not being prosecuted. The charge that the

appellant – Manish Sisodia is vicariously liable in terms of Section

70 of the PML Act cannot be alleged and has not been argued.

33

32

We are not commenting on the material and evidence relied by the DoE or CBI.

33

See – Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels and Tours Private Limited, (2012) 5 SCC 661, and

Sharad Kumar Sanghi v. Sangita Rane, (2015) 12 SCC 781.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 23 of 41

13. Fourthly, the contention of the DoE that generation of proceeds of

crime is itself ‘possession’ or ‘use’ of the ‘proceeds of crime’, prima

facie, appears to be unclear and not free from doubt in view of the

ratio in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary (supra). Further, the DoE’s

contention that ‘generation’ amounts to possession and the

expression ‘possession’ includes constructive possession, for which

reliance is placed upon Mohan Lal v. State of Rajasthan

34

, is not

assured.

14. On the other hand, the appellant – Manish Sisodia relies on

paragraphs 251, 269 and 270 of Vijay Madanlal Choudhay

(supra), to contend that money laundering is an independent

offence regarding the process or activity connected with the

proceeds of crime derived as a result of criminal activity relating to

or in relation to a scheduled offence. It is submitted that Vijay

Madanlal Choudhry (supra) has held that PML Act is an

independent and distinct Act which deals with offences relating to

only proceeds of crime, and not with the crime itself which generates

the proceeds of the crime. In particular, paragraph 406 in Vijay

Madanlal Choudhary (supra) states:

“406…The fact that the proceeds of crime have been

generated as a result of criminal activity relating to a

34

(2015) 6 SCC 222.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 24 of 41

scheduled offence, which incidentally happens to be a

non-cognisable offence, would make no difference. The

person is not prosecuted for the scheduled offence by

invoking provisions of the 2002 Act, but only when he

has derived or obtained property as a result of criminal

activity relating to or in relation to a scheduled offence

and the indulges in process or activity connected with

such proceeds of crime...”

Paragraph 407 similarly states:

“407…the offence under this Act in terms of Section 3 is

specific to involvement in any process or activity

connected with the proceeds of crime which is

generated as a result of criminal activity related to the

scheduled offence…”

15. In Mohan Lal (supra), the expression ‘possession’, it is held,

consists of two elements. First, it refers to corpus of physical control

and second it refers to the animus or intent which has reference to

exercise of self-control. In the context of narcotics laws, a person is

said to possess control over the substance when he knows the

substance is immediately accessible and exercises dominion or

control over the substance. The power and dominion over the

substance is, therefore, fundamental. The stand of the DoE as to

the constructive possession, will be satisfied only if the dominion

and control criteria is satisfied. If the proceeds of crime are in

dominion and control of a third person, and not in the dominion and

control of the person charged under Section 3, the accused is not in

possession of the proceeds of the crime. It would be a different

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 25 of 41

matter, when an accused, though not in possession, is charged for

use, concealment or acquisition of the proceeds of the crime, or

projects or claims the proceeds of crime as untainted property. The

involvement of an accused may be direct or indirect. Prima facie,

there is lack of clarity, as specific allegation on the involvement of

the appellant – Manish Sisodia, direct or indirect, in the transfer of

Rs. 45,00,00,000 (rupees forty five crores only) to AAP for the Goa

elections is missing.

16. This Court in Y. Balaji v. Karthik Desari and Another

35

, while

examining contours of Section 3 of the PML Act

36

, referred to the

drafting note on self-laundering contained in the U.N. Model Law

2009, which states that the third party would be liable for money

35

(2023) SCC Online SC 645.

36

Section 3 of the PML Act reads:

Section 3 of the PML Act reads:

“3. Offence of money-laundering.—Whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly

assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected with

the proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or

claiming it as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money-laundering.

Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that,—

(i) a person shall be guilty of offence of money-laundering if such person is found to have directly or

indirectly attempted to indulge or knowingly assisted or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in

one or more of the following processes or activities connected with proceeds of crime, namely—

(a) concealment; or

(b) possession; or

(c) acquisition; or

(d) use; or

(e) projecting as untainted property; or

(f) claiming as untainted property,

in any manner whatsoever;

(ii) the process or activity connected with proceeds of crime is a continuing activity and continues till

such time a person is directly or indirectly enjoying the proceeds of crime by its concealment or

possession or acquisition or use or projecting it as untainted property or claiming it as untainted property

in any manner whatsoever.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 26 of 41

laundering even where the fundamental principles of domestic law

require that it will not apply to persons who commit the predicate

offence. In some countries, constitutional principles prohibit

prosecuting a person both for money laundering and a predicate

offence. However, in most common law countries, the fundamental

principles do not prohibit application of money laundering offence to

self-launderers. On dissection of the main part of Section 3, it is held

that it postulates three ‘p’s, namely, the person, the process or

activity, and the product. The process or activity consists of six parts

– concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting or claiming

the proceeds of crime as untainted property. The product, that is,

the proceeds of the crime, has been defined in Section 2(u) of the

PML Act, as a property derived or obtained directly or indirectly by

a person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled

offence or the value of such property.

37

As far as ‘person’ is

concerned, it means those who directly or indirectly attempt to

indulge; those who knowingly assist, or those who are knowingly a

party, or those who are actually involved. On the above

interpretation, this court held that the offence under Section 3 of the

37

Section 2(u) of the PML Act reads:

“‘proceeds of crime’ means any property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person

as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence or the value of any such property or

where such property is taken or held outside the country, then the property equivalent in value

held within the country or abroad;”

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 27 of 41

PML Act includes both the persons who commit the predicate or

schedule offence and third party launderers.

38

17. The judgment in Y. Balaji (supra), it is submitted by the appellant –

Manish Sisodia, does not specifically examine whether ‘generation’

will be included in the six activities covered under the head ‘process

or activity’. The second ‘p’ must relate to the activity or process with

the third ‘p’, that is, the product, which is the proceeds of crime.

However, we need not, in the present case, definitively pronounce

on the said aspects as these issues and contentions will have to be

examined threadbare by the trial court, or in an appropriate case by

this Court.

18. The offence of conspiracy and abetment, in terms of Sections 120/

120B and Sections 107/108 of the IPC, are not applicable to

offences under the PML Act. At the same time, Section 3 of the PML

Act is wide and encompassing as it uses the words, “directly or

indirectly”, with reference to the person involved, and knowingly

assists, or knowingly is a party in an offence in relation to the

concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting or claiming

the proceeds of crime as untainted property.

39

38

For the purpose of the present decision, we need not examine whether there is a conflict in the ratio

in Y. Balaji (supra) and the ratio in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary (supra).

39

Scope and ambit of these words/expressions has not been examined by us.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 28 of 41

19. We must also record that the DoE has not urged and argued before

us the contention that the new liquor policy is vitiated on the ground

that retail vends had to be and were auctioned, though the R.D.

Committee’s Report dated 13.10.2020 has suggested retail vends

should be allotted by lottery.

40

Normally, auction and allotment to the

highest bidder would be fair and beneficial for revenue generation,

though in certain circumstances allotment by other modes may be

more fair and better.

41

We will not go into the said aspect. Neither

are we examining whether this plea can be taken by the DoE, in

view of Articles 74(2)

42

and 163(3)

43

of the Constitution of India, as

this relates to the wisdom or merits of the choice that every elected

government has while formulating a policy.

44

However, we should

not be understood to mean that no policy decision would fall foul as

40

Relevant portion of the R.D. Committee Report dated 13.10.2020 reads: “1.3.4…. The lottery

applications will be against the pool of all 846 vends and will be randomly allotted in wards, NDMC area

and airports…” In the written submissions filed by the prosecution several assertions have been made.

41

In Indian Medicines Pharmaceuticals Corporation Ltd. v. Kerala Ayurvedic Cooperative Society

Ltd. And Ors., 2023 SCC OnLine SC 5, this Court held that:

“17. This Court has consistently held that government contracts must be awarded by a transparent

process. The process of inviting tenders ensures a level playing field for competing entities. While

there may be situations which warrant a departure from the percept of inviting tenders or

conducting public auctions, the departure must not be unreasonable or discriminatory. In Centre

for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India, the ‘first-cum- serve’ policy was held to be arbitrary

while alienating natural resources. However, the Court observed that though auction is ‘preferred’

method of allocation, it cannot be construed to be a constitutional requirement.”

42

Article 74(2) of the Constitution of India reads: “…(2) The question whether any, and if so what,

advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.”

43

Article 163(3) of the Constitution of India reads: “…(3) The question whether any, and if so what,

advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.”

44

See In Yashwant Sinha and Ors. v. Central Bureau of Investigation, (2019) 6 SCC 1, State of

Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain, (1975) 4 SCC 428, Doypack Systems (P) Ltd. v. Union of India, (1988)

2 SCC 299 and other cases.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 29 of 41

to be covered as an offence under Section 7 of the PoC Act. We

shall subsequently examine Section 7 of the PoC Act viz. the facts

alleged. We need not go into the questions in detail as the argument

with reference to Article 163(3) has not been specifically raised on

behalf of the appellant – Manish Sisodia, though the plea that the

CBI, the DoE and the Court should not examine merits and wisdom

behind the choice of policy decision have been raised.

20. The appellant – Manish Sisodia, it is claimed, had deliberately

destroyed the two mobile phones so as to prevent any investigation.

Further, he had changed his mobile phone on 22.07.2022, the date

on which the media had covered the news of the complaint sent by

the LG of NCT of Delhi to the CBI for investigation. The appellant –

Manish Sisodia states that people do change mobile phones

frequently, and old phones need not be retained. Whether or not

the allegation as to deliberate destruction of mobile phones is

correct would be decided post recording of evidence, but this would

not be a weighty factor for deciding the question of bail, given the

period of detention undergone by the appellant – Manish Sisodia.

45

45

See Section 201 of the IPC, which reads:

“201. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence, or giving false information to screen offender.—

Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed, causes any

evidence of the commission of that offence to disappear, with the intention of screening the offender

from legal punishment, or with that intention gives any information respecting the offence which he

knows or believes to be false,

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 30 of 41

21. However, there is one clear ground or charge in the complaint filed

under the PML Act, which is free from perceptible legal challenge

and the facts as alleged are tentatively supported by material and

evidence. This discussion is equally relevant for the charge-sheet

filed by the CBI under the PoC Act and IPC. We would like to

recapitulate the facts as alleged, which it is stated establish an

offence under Section 3 of the PML Act and the PoC Act. These are:

• In a period of about ten months, during which the new excise

policy was in operation, the wholesale distributors had earned

Rs. 581,00,00,000 (rupees five hundred eighty one crores

only) as the fixed fee.

• The one time licence fee collected from 14 wholesale

distributors was about Rs.70,00,00,000 (rupees seventy

crores only).

• Under the old policy 5% commission was payable to the

wholesale distributors/licensees.

if a capital offence.—shall, if the offence which he knows or believes to have been committed is

punishable with death, be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend

to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine;

if punishable with imprisonment for life.—and if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for life, or

with imprisonment which may extend to ten years, shall be punished with imprisonment of either

description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine;

if punishable with less than ten years' imprisonment.—and if the offence is punishable with

imprisonment for any term not extending to ten years, shall be punished with imprisonment of the

description provided for the offence, for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term

of the imprisonment provided for the offence, or with fine, or with both.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 31 of 41

• The difference between the 12%; minus 5% of the wholesale

profit margin plus Rs.70,00,00,000/-; it is submitted, would

constitute proceeds of crime, an offence punishable under the

PML Act. The proceeds of crime were acquired, used and

were in possession of the wholesale distributors who have

unlawfully benefitted from illegal gain at the expense of the

government exchequer and the consumers/buyers.

46

Relevant

portion of the criminal complaint filed by the DoE dated

04.05.2023, reads:

“One of the reasons given by Sh Manish Sisodia is to

compensate the wholesaler for increased license fee

from Rs 5 lacs to Rs. 5 Cr. During this policy period, 14

LI licences were given by Excise Department, by

raising the license fee for LI to Rs. 5 Cr in the entire

period of operation of the Delhi Excise Policy 2021- 22,

the Govt. has earned Rs. 75.16 Cr from the license fee

of LI (as per Excise department communication dated

11.04.2023) (RUD 34). On the other hand the excess

profit earned by the wholesalers during this period is to

the tune of Rs. 338 Cr. (7% additional profit earned due

to increase from 5% to 12%, Rs. 581 Cr being the total

profit of LI as informed by Excise department).

Therefore there 1s no logical correlation between the

license fee increase and the profit margin increase.

Whereas this excess profit margin benefit could have

been passed on to the consumers in form of lower

MRP. Contrary to the claim that the policy was meant

to benefit the public or the exchequer, it was rather a

conspiracy to ensure massive illegal gains to a select

few private players/individuals/entities.”

46

We wish to clarify that not all distributor licensees may be involved or have committed an offence

under Section 3 of the PML Act. The figures quoted above relate to the 14 licensees, and have to be

watered down/lowered to the sales made by the delinquent whole-sale distributor licensees who are

being prosecuted.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 32 of 41

22. The charge-sheet under the PoC Act includes offences for unlawful

gains to a private person at the expense of the public exchequer.

Reference in this regard is made to the provisions of Sections 7, 7A,

8 and 12 of the PoC Act.

23. Clauses (a) and (b) to Section 7 of the PoC Act

47

apply: (a) when a

public servant obtains, accepts or intends to obtain from another

person undue advantage with the intent to perform or fail to

improperly or to forbear or cause forbearance to cause by himself

or by another person; (b) obtains or accepts or attempts to obtain

undue advantage from a person as a reward or dishonest

performance of a public duty or forbearance to perform such duty,

47

Section 7 of PoC Act reads:

“7. Offence relating to public servant being bribed.—Any public servant who,—

(a) obtains or accepts or attempts to obtain from any person, an undue advantage, with the intention to

perform or cause performance of public duty improperly or dishonestly or to forbear or cause

forbearance to perform such duty either by himself or by another public servant; or

(b) obtains or accepts or attempts to obtain, an undue advantage from any person as a reward for the

improper or dishonest performance of a public duty or for forbearing to perform such duty either by

himself or another public servant; or

(c) performs or induces another public servant to perform improperly or dishonestly a public duty or to

forbear performance of such duty in anticipation of or in consequence of accepting an undue advantage

from any person,

shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which

may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

Explanation 1.—For the purpose of this section, the obtaining, accepting, or the attempting to obtain an

undue advantage shall itself constitute an offence even if the performance of a public duty by public

servant, is not or has not been improper.

Illustration.—A public servant, ‘S’ asks a person, ‘P’ to give him an amount of five thousand rupees to

process his routine ration card application on time. ‘S’ is guilty of an offence under this section.

Explanation 2.—For the purpose of this section,—

(i) the expressions ‘obtains’ or ‘accepts’ or ‘attempts to obtain’ shall cover cases where a person being

a public servant, obtains or ‘accepts’ or attempts to obtain, any undue advantage for himself or for

another person, by abusing his position as a public servant or by using his personal influence over

another public servant; or by any other corrupt or illegal means;

(ii) it shall be immaterial whether such person being a public servant obtains or accepts, or attempts to

obtain the undue advantage directly or through a third party.”

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 33 of 41

either by himself or by another public servant. Explanation (2)

construes the words and expression, “obtains, accepts or attempts

to obtain”, as to cover cases where a public servant obtains, accepts

or intends to obtain any undue advantage by abusing his position as

a public servant or by using his personal interest over another public

servant by any other corrupt or illegal means. It is immaterial

whether such person being a public servant accepts or attempts to

obtain the undue advantage directly or through a third party.

24. On this aspect of the offences under the PoC Act, the CBI has

submitted that conspiracy and involvement of the appellant –

Manish Sisodia is well established. For the sake of clarity, without

making any additions, subtractions, or a detailed analysis, we would

like to recapitulate what is stated in the chargesheet filed by the CBI

against the appellant – Manish Sisodia:

• The existing excise policy was changed to facilitate and get

kickbacks and bribes from the wholesale distributors by

enhancing their commission/fee from 5% under the old policy

to 12% under the new policy. Accordingly, a conspiracy was

hatched to carefully draft the new policy, deviating from the

expert opinion/views to create an eco-system to assure unjust

enrichment of the wholesale distributors at the expense of

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 34 of 41

government exchequer or the consumer. The illegal income

(proceeds of crime, as per the DoE) would partly be recycled

and returned in the form of bribes.

• Vijay Nair, who was the middleman, a go-between, a member

of AAP, and a co-confident of the appellant – Manish Sisodia,

had interacted with Butchi Babu, Arun Pillai, Abhishek Boinpally

and Sarath Reddy, to frame the excise policy on conditions and

terms put forth and to the satisfaction and desire of the liquor

group.

• Vijay Nair and the members of the liquor group had meetings

on different dates, including 16.03.2021, and had prepared the

new excise policy, which was handed over to Vijay Nair.

Thereupon, the commission/fee, which was earlier fixed at

minimum of 5%, was enhanced to fixed fee of 12% payable to

wholesale distributor.

• The appellant – Manish Sisodia was aware that three liquor

manufacturers have 85% share in the liquor market in Delhi.

Out of them two manufacturers had 65% liquor share, while 14

small manufacturers had 20% market share. As per the term in

the new excise policy - each manufacturer could appoint only

one wholesale distributor, through whom alone the liquor would

be sold. At the same time, the wholesale distributors could enter

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 35 of 41

into distribution agreements with multiple manufacturers. This

facilitated getting kickbacks or bribes from the wholesale

distributors having substantial market share and turnover.

• The licence fee payable by the wholesale distributor was a fixed

amount of Rs.5,00,00,000/- (rupees five crores only). It was not

dependant on the turnover. The new policy facilitated big

wholesale distributors, whose outpour towards the licence fee

was fixed.

• The policy favoured and promoted cartelisation. Large

wholesale distributors with high market share because of

extraneous reasons and kickbacks, were ensured to earn

exorbitant profits.

• Mahadev Liquor, who was a wholesale distributor for 14 small

manufacturers, having 20% market share, was forced to

surrender the wholesale distributorship licence.

• Indo Spirit, the firm in which the liquor group had interest, was

granted whole distributor licence, in spite of complaints of

cartelisation etc. which were overlooked. The complainant was

forced to take back his complaint.

• The excess amount of 7% commission/fee earned by the

wholesale distributors of Rs.338,00,00,000/- (rupees three

hundred thirty eight crores only) constitute an offence as

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 36 of 41

defined under Section 7 of the PoC Act, relating to a public

servant being bribed. (As per the DoE, these are proceeds of

crime). This amount was earned by the wholesale distributors

in a span of ten months. This figure cannot be disputed or

challenged. Thus, the new excise policy was meant to give

windfall gains to select few wholesale distributors, who in turn

had agreed to give kickbacks and bribes.

• No doubt, VAT and excise duty was payable separately.

However, under the new policy the VAT was reduced to mere

1%.

• Vijay Nair had assured the liquor group that they would be

made distributor of Pernod Ricard, one of the biggest players in

the market. This did happen.

25. In view of the aforesaid discussion and for the reasons stated, we

are not inclined to accept the prayer for grant of bail at this stage.

26. However, we are also concerned about the prolonged period of

incarceration suffered by the appellant – Manish Sisodia. In P.

Chidambaram v. Directorate of Enforcement

48

, the appellant

therein was granted bail after being kept in custody for around 49

48

(2020) 13 SCC 791.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 37 of 41

days

49

, relying on the Constitution Bench in Shri Gurbaksh Singh

Sibbia and Others v. State of Punjab

50

, and Sanjay Chandra v.

Central Bureau of Investigation

51

, that even if the allegation is one

of grave economic offence, it is not a rule that bail should be denied

in every case. Ultimately, the consideration has to be made on a

case to case basis, on the facts. The primary object is to secure the

presence of the accused to stand trial. The argument that the

appellant therein was a flight risk or that there was a possibility of

tampering with the evidence or influencing the witnesses, was

rejected by the Court. Again, in Satender Kumar Antil v. Central

Bureau of Investigation and Another

52

, this Court referred to

Surinder Singh Alias Shingara Singh v. State of Punjab

53

and

Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab

54

, to emphasise that the right

to speedy trial is a fundamental right within the broad scope of

Article 21 of the Constitution. In Vijay Madanlal Choudhary

(supra), this Court while highlighting the evil of economic offences

like money laundering, and its adverse impact on the society and

citizens, observed that arrest infringes the fundamental right to life.

49

In P. Chidambaram v. Central Bureau of Investigation, (2020) 13 SCC 337, the appellant therein

was granted bail after being kept in custody for around 62 days.

50

(1980) 2 SCC 565.

51

(2012) 1 SCC 40.

52

(2022) 10 SCC 51.

53

(2005) 7 SCC 387.

54

(1977) 4 SCC 291.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 38 of 41

This Court referred to Section 19 of the PML Act, for the in-built

safeguards to be adhered to by the authorised officers to ensure

fairness, objectivity and accountability.

55

Vijay Madanlal

Choudhary (supra), also held that Section 436A of the Code

56

can

apply to offences under the PML Act, as it effectuates the right to

speedy trial, a facet of the right to life, except for a valid ground such

as where the trial is delayed at the instance of the accused himself.

In our opinion, Section 436A should not be construed as a mandate

that an accused should not be granted bail under the PML Act till he

has suffered incarceration for the specified period. This Court, in

Arnab Manoranjan Goswami v. State of Maharashtra and

Others

57

, held that while ensuring proper enforcement of criminal

law on one hand, the court must be conscious that liberty across

human eras is as tenacious as tenacious can be.

55

See also Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India and Ors., 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1244.

56

436A of the Code reads:

“436-A. Maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner can be detained.—Where a person has,

during the period of investigation, inquiry or trial under this Code of an offence under any law (not being

an offence for which the punishment of death has been specified as one of the punishments under that

law) undergone detention for a period extending up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment

specified for that offence under that law, he shall be released by the Court on his personal bond with or

without sureties:

Provided that the Court may, after hearing the Public Prosecutor and for reasons to be recorded by it in

writing, order the continued detention of such person for a period longer than one-half of the said period

or release him on bail instead of the personal bond with or without sureties:

Provided further that no such person shall in any case be detained during the period of investigation,

inquiry or trial for more than the maximum period of imprisonment provided for the said offence under

that law.

Explanation.—In computing the period of detention under this section for granting bail, the period of

detention passed due to delay in proceeding caused by the accused shall be excluded.”

57

(2021) 2 SCC 427.

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 39 of 41

27. The appellant – Manish Sisodia has argued that given the number

of witnesses, 294 in the prosecution filed by the CBI and 162 in the

prosecution filed by the DoE, and the documents 31,000 pages and

25,000 pages respectively, the fact that the CBI has filed multiple

charge sheets, the arguments of charge have not commenced. The

trial court has allowed application of the accused for furnishing of

additional documents, which order has been challenged by the

prosecution under Section 482 of the Code before the High Court.

It was stated at the Bar, on behalf of the prosecution that the said

petition under Section 482 will be withdrawn. It was also stated at

the Bar, by the prosecution that the trial would be concluded within

next six to eight months.

28. Detention or jail before being pronounced guilty of an offence should

not become punishment without trial. If the trial gets protracted

despite assurances of the prosecution, and it is clear that case will

not be decided within a foreseeable time, the prayer for bail may be

meritorious. While the prosecution may pertain to an economic

offence, yet it may not be proper to equate these cases with those

punishable with death, imprisonment for life, ten years or more like

offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances

Act, 1985, murder, cases of rape, dacoity, kidnaping for ransom,

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 40 of 41

mass violence, etc. Neither is this a case where 100/1000s of

depositors have been defrauded. The allegations have to be

established and proven. The right to bail in cases of delay, coupled

with incarceration for a long period, depending on the nature of the

allegations, should be read into Section 439 of the Code and Section

45 of the PML Act. The reason is that the constitutional mandate is

the higher law, and it is the basic right of the person charged of an

offence and not convicted, that he be ensured and given a speedy

trial. When the trial is not proceeding for reasons not attributable to

the accused, the court, unless there are good reasons, may well be

guided to exercise the power to grant bail. This would be truer where

the trial would take years.

29. In view of the assurance given at the Bar on behalf of the

prosecution that they shall conclude the trial by taking appropriate

steps within next six to eight months, we give liberty to the appellant

– Manish Sisodia to move a fresh application for bail in case of

change in circumstances, or in case the trial is protracted and

proceeds at a snail’s pace in next three months. If any application

for bail is filed in the above circumstances, the same would be

considered by the trial court on merits without being influenced by

the dismissal of the earlier bail application, including the present

Criminal Appeal a/o. of SLP (Crl.) No. 8167 of 2023 & Anr. Page 41 of 41

judgment. Observations made above, re.: right to speedy trial, will,

however, be taken into consideration. The appellant – Manish

Sisodia may also file an application for interim bail in case of ill-

health and medical emergency due to illness of his wife. Such

application would be also examined on its own merits.

30. Recording the aforesaid, the appeals are dismissed. However, we

clarify that the observations made in this judgment, either way, are

only for disposal of the present appeals, and these would not

influence the trial court on the merits of the case, which would

proceed in accordance with law, and decided on the basis of the

evidence led. All disputed factual and legal issues are left open.

......................................J.

(SANJIV KHANNA)

…...................................J.

(S.V.N. BHATTI)

NEW DELHI;

OCTOBER 30, 2023.

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