As per case facts, petitioners challenged assessment notices for tax and penalty under the VAT Regulation, arguing they were time-barred, exceeded jurisdiction, and violated natural justice by lacking prior hearings ...
1
IN THE HIGH COURT AT CALCUTTA
CONSTITUTIONAL WRIT JURISDICTION
[CIRCUIT BENCH AT PORT BLAIR]
PRESENT: THE HON'BLE JUSTICE ARIJIT BANERJEE
WPA/345/2025
M/s. Seashell vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/391/2025
Shri Praveen vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/392/2025
M/s. Sinclairs Hotel Limited Vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/393/2025
Smti. C. Kalaiarasi Vs The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/394/2025
M/s. Aquays Hotels and Resorts Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others
With
2
WPA/395/2025
Shri T. Kannan Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/396/2025
Shri. V. Ravichandran Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/397/2025
M/s. Hotel Sentinel Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/398/2025
Welcomehotel Bay Island, Unit of ITC Hotel Ltd. Vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others
With
WPA/399/2025
M/s. Oriental Filling Station Vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/400/2025
M/s. Jadwet Trading Company Vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
3
WPA/401/2025
M/s. Royal Petroleum Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/418/2025
M/s. Kamala Trading Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/420/2025
M/s. Manoj Marketing Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/566/2025
M/s. Hotel Arasi Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
With
WPA/568/2025
M/s. Medival Islander Inn Bar Vs The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/569/2025
M/s. Hotel Sarvottam (A) Pvt. Ltd. Vs. The Lt. Governor
and Others
With
4
WPA/570/2025
M/s. Hotel Rajadeepam Vs The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/573/2025
M/s. Whistling Wood Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/574/2025
M/s. Apt Bar and Restaurant Vs. The Lieutenant Governor
and Others
With
WPA/575/2025
M/s. Dharma Cool Bar Vs The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/583/2025
M/s. Hotel Raj Prakash Vs The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/366/2025
M/s. TSG Hotels and Resorts vs. The Lieutenant Governor
and Others
5
With
WPA/367/2025
Shri V. Karuppaiah Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/368/2025
M/s. TSG Aqua (TSG Bella Bay) Vs. The Lieutenant
Governor and Others
With
WPA/369/2025
Shri K. V. Rama Rao Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/370/2025
M/s. Holiday Inn –vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others
With
WPA/371/2025
Smti. Usha Moorthy –vs- The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/372/2025
M/s. Aparupa Sands Marina Vs. The Lieutenant Governor
and Others
6
With
WPA/373/2025
M/s. Hotel Aparupa (A) Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Lieutenant
Governor and Others
With
WPA/374/2025
M/s. Southern Holdings and Investments (Chennai) Pvt.
Ltd.
Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others
With
WPA/375/2025
Shri K. V. Narsimha Rao Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/381/2025
M/s. Silver Sand Neil vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/383/2025
Smti. K. Shobha vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others
With
WPA/384/2025
7
M/s. C. S. Empire vs- The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/385/2025
M/s. Pearl Park Beach Resort vs. The Lieutenant Governor
and Others
With
WPA/546/2025
M/s. Annu Bar and Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/547/2025
M/s. Pristine Beach Resort vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/549/2025
M/s. Ashoka Bar and Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor
and Others
With
WPA/550/2025
M/s. B. R. B. Bar and Restaurant Vs Lieutenant Governor
and Another
With
8
WPA/551/2025
M/s. Purna Pushpawalli Bar and Restuarant Vs.
Lieutenant Governor and Another
With
WPA/552/2025
M/s. Stalin Bar and Restaurant vs. The Lieutenant
Governor and Others
With
WPA/558/2025
M/s. Hotel A.T.Villa Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and
Others
With
WPA/562/2025
M/s. Hotel Exel Bar and Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor
and Others
With
WPA/563/2025
M/s. Unique Bar and Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others
With
WPA/564/2025
M/s. G. International vs. The Lt. Governor and Others
9
With
WPA/565/2025
M/s. G. M. S. Restaurant Vs The Lt. Governor and Others
For the petitioner : Ms. Anjili Nag, Sr.Adv.
Mr. Adarsh Ilango,
For the respondents : Mr. Rakesh Kumar
Heard on : February 04, 2026
Delivered on : February 10, 2026
ARIJIT BANERJEE, J.
1. Learned counsel for the parties told me that these writ
petitions involve similar facts and same points of law.
Hence, they were heard analogously. However, for the sake
of convenience, I will refer to the records of WPA/345/2025
(M/s Seashell vs. The Lieutenant Governor and others).
2. The impugned notices issued under section 32
(Assessment of Tax and Interest) and Section 33
(Assessment of Penalty) of the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands Value Added Tax Regulation, 2017 (in short 2017
Regulation), may be dated differently in the different writ
petitions but in substance are the same. The orders
10
rejecting the written objections filed by the petitioners in
terms of section 74 of the VAT Regulation may also be
differently dated but in substance are the same.
3. Notices under sections 32 and 33 of the 2017
Regulation were served on the petitioner. The petitioner
filed statutory objection as per section 74 of the 2017
Regulation. Such objection was rejected. Challenging such
rejection order and the two notices, the petitioner has
approached this Court.
4. The respondent authorities challenged the
maintainability of the writ petition on the ground that there
exists an alternative remedy by way of statutory appeal
under section 76 of the VAT Regulation. In response, the
petitioner submitted that though an Appellate Tribunal has
been constituted recently vide Gazette Notification dated
August 19, 2025, yet, the manner of regulating the
procedure and disposal of the business of the Appellate
Tribunal has not been brought into force in the form of
Rules as required under section 73(6) of the VAT
Regulation. Hence, the petitioner cannot be expected to
11
approach the Tribunal when the remedial forum has been
hastily constituted without there being any clarification as
regards the manner of its functioning.
5. On the point of maintainability, it was further
submitted that the VAT Commissioner while carrying out
the assessment exercise has exceeded his jurisdiction and
violated the principles of natural justice. The assessment
is barred by limitation. A plea of limitation concerns the
jurisdiction of the Court. When an order of a Tribunal is
challenged, inter alia, on the ground of being without
jurisdiction, the writ court ought to entertain an
application under Article 226 of the Constitution in spite of
availability of an alternative remedy.
6. Amplifying on the point of limitation, Mr. Adarsh
Ilango, learned counsel representing the petitioner, drew
my attention to Section 34 of the VAT Regulation and
submitted that the Commissioner is empowered to make
assessment or reassessment within a period of four years
from the end of the year comprising tax period(s).
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7. In the present case, the last date for issuing notice of
assessment stood expired. Hence, the notices under
sections 32 and 33 of the VAT Regulation are barred by
limitation. Consequently, the assessment period(s) FY
2017-18, FY 2018-19, FY 2019-2020 cannot be brought
under the purview of assessment or reassessment as the
assessment has been made between 2024 and early 2025.
Therefore, the said notices are without jurisdiction.
8. Learned counsel submitted that the date from which
limitation period for assessment has to be calculated is the
end of the financial year comprising of the tax period for
which the assessee has filed returns. ‘Year’ has been
defined in section 2(1)(zo) of the 2017 Regulation to mean
the financial year or the first date of April to the last date of
March. Therefore, the cutoff date/limitation for assessment
of the relevant financial years would be as follows:
Tax period Beginning of
Limitation
End of Limitation
FY 2017-2018 31.03.2018 31.03.2022
FY 2018-2019 31.03.2019 31.03.2023
FY 2019-2020 31.03.2020 31.03.2024
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9. Learned advocate further submitted that the proviso
to section 34(1) of the VAT Regulation will not be
applicable. That can only be applied when tax has not been
paid. The question of omission or failure to disclose
something will arise only when tax is unpaid. In the
present case, it is undisputed that the assessee has paid
requisite tax. There is also no indication in the notices
issued under sections 32 and 33 that the Commissioner
had reason to apply such proviso.
10. Insofar as the FY 2020-2021 is concerned, learned
counsel submitted that the assessment for that period is
non est in the eye of law due to non-compliance of section
58 of the VAT Regulation and violation of the principle of
audi alteram partem. In support of the contention that the
notices for assessment of taxes and interest and
assessment of penalty being time barred are without
jurisdiction, learned counsel referred to the following cases.
(i) M/s Tata Teleservices Limited vs. The State of
Chhattisgarh and others (Civil Appeal NO.1993 of
2022).
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(ii) Calcutta Discount Co. Limited vs. Income Tax
Officer, Companies District-I, Calcutta and another
in 1961 AIR Supreme Court 372.
(iii) M/s Yogi Petroleum Vs. the Commissioner (VAT),
Dadar and Nagar Haveli (Writ Petition (Stamp)
NO.93644 of 2020).
(iv) Durga Steel Rolling Mills Vs. Commissioner of
Commercial Taxes [2024: AHC-LKO:22796] and
M/s Sayar Cars Vs. Appellate Deputy Commissioner
(CT) WP No.30251, 30256 and 30258 of 2019.
(v) The Calcutta Municipal Corporation and others vs.
The Cricket Association of Bengal and others
(APO/248 of 2016 with WPO/2662 of 1996]
11. Learned counsel then submitted that section 32(1) of
the VAT Regulation stipulates that the Commissioner by a
single order can make an assessment so long as all the tax
period(s) in that are comprised in one year. In the present
15
case, the Commissioner has exceeded his jurisdiction in
incorporating more than one taxation year in a single order
of assessment. Therefore, the notice of assessment of tax
under section 32 of the VAT Regulation is contrary to law
and hence bad.
12. Learned counsel then drew my attention to section
58(4)(b) of the VAT Regulation and submitted that the said
provision stipulates that the Commissioner shall only after
considering the returns, evidence furnished in the returns
and the evidence acquired in the course of audit, issue
notices under sections 32 and 33 of the Regulation.
Subsections (1) to (3) of Regulation 58 of the VAT
Regulation provide for a notice being served on the
assessee intimating for audit of the business, hearing,
inspection, along with production of documents and books
of accounts. None of these provisions were complied with
by the respondent authorities.
13. Learned counsel submitted that although one notice
was sent to the petitioner calling upon it to submit books of
accounts for assessment of value added tax such notice
16
was not in compliance of Regulation 58. When the
Commissioner felt that audit was necessary before making
an assessment, it is not understood why the Commissioner
proceeded with the assessment without conducting an
audit.
14. The Commissioner unilaterally proceeded to make the
assessment without permitting the petitioner to participate
in the process and without granting an opportunity of
hearing to the petitioner. The Commissioner has thereby
acted in breach of the principle of audi alteram partem. In
this connection, reliance was placed on the decision of the
Bombay High Court in the case of M/s Yogi Petoleum
(supra).
15. The next point urged was that the Andaman and
Nicobar Value Added Tax Rules were notified by the
Commissioner (VAT) through publication in the official
gazette in 2020. Section 70(5) of the VAT Regulation states
that “every notification issued by the Commissioner under
this Regulation shall be published in the Official Gazette
and shall not have any effect prior to such publication.”
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Therefore, the 2020 Rules cannot be given retrospective
effect. Further, Section 112(3) states that any Rule made
under this Regulation may be made so as to be
retrospective to any date not earlier than the date of
commencement, provided that no Rule shall be given effect
retrospectively if it would have the effect of prejudicially
affecting the interests of a dealer.
16. Learned counsel submitted that in both the notices
issued under sections 32 and 33, it is absolutely unclear
as to how the petitioner is liable for violation of any of the
provisions of VAT Regulation or the Rules. The notices are
vague, devoid of material particulars and therefore, cannot
be acted upon.
17. Mr. Adarsh Ilango submitted that the assessment by
the Commissioner under section 33 is based on the
principle of “best judgment assessment”. When any
assessment is based on that principle, penalty cannot be
imposed. In this connection, reliance was placed on the
following decisions:
18
(i) Durga Steel Rolling Mills Vs. Commissioner
of Commercial Taxes [2024: AHC-
LKO:22796];
(ii) M/s Sayar Cars Vs. Appellate Deputy
Commissioner (CT) WP No.30251, 30256 and
30258 of 2019
18. Learned counsel submitted that under section 33(1),
the Commissioner has to have a reason to believe that
liability to pay a penalty has arisen. In the notice under
section 33 that was served on the petitioner, no reason is
mentioned as to why penalty was being imposed on the
petitioner. Further, without assigning any valid reason, the
Commissioner chose to impose the maximum amount of
penalty prescribed under the statute clearly indicating that
the assessment of penalty has been made arbitrarily, with
malafide intention to harass the assessee. The notices are
unreasoned. The basis on which the amounts of tax or
penalty have been arrived at, has not been disclosed. When
such a demand notice fails to provide the basis on which
the amount claimed is arrived at, the notice becomes
19
arbitrary and unsustainable in the eye of law. In this
connection, reliance was placed on the case of Calcutta
Municipal Corporation and others vs. The Cricket
Association of Bengal and others [APO/248 of 2016
with WPO/2662 of 1996).
19. Learned counsel then referred to the decision of a
Division Bench of this Court, dated May 06, 2025, rendered
in WP.TT/8/2025 (Jharna Saha vs. Joint Commissioner
of Sale Tax, Behala Charge and others) in support of
his contention that if an assessment is made without
serving prior notice on the assessee, the assessment is
rendered null and void for want of jurisdiction.
20. Learned counsel relied on the decision of the Hon’ble
Supreme Court in the case of M/s Shiv Steels vs. State of
Assam reported in (2025) INSC 1126, in support of his
submission that in construing fiscal statutes and in
determining the liability of a subject to tax, one must have
regard to the strict letter of law. If the revenue satisfies the
Court that the case falls strictly within the provisions of the
law, the subject can be taxed. If , on the other hand, the
20
case is not covered within the four corners of the provisions
of the taxing statute, no tax can be imposed by inference or
by analogy or by trying to probe into the intentions of the
legislation and by considering what was the substance of
the matter.
21. Learned counsel finally referred to the decision of the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of M/s Godrej Sara Lee
Ltd vs. The Excise And Taxation Officer-cum-Assessing
Authority and others reported in 2023 AIR SC 781 , in
support of his submission that where the controversy is a
purely legal one not involving disputed questions of fact but
only questions of law, then it should be decided by the High
Court instead of dismissing the writ petition on the ground
of an alternative remedy being available
22. Appearing for the Administration, Mr. Rakesh Kumar,
learned counsel submitted as follows:
(i) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands Value Added
Tax Regulation, 2017 was brought into effect from
01.07.2017. The said Regulation provided for levy
21
of taxes on sale of goods, sold on or after
01.07.2017, schedule of taxable goods, rates of tax
applicable, liability of persons/dealers to pay tax,
formula for computation of net tax, requirements
with regard to submission of returns, etc.
(ii) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands Value Added
Tax Rules, 2020, was brought into force on
14.12.2020. The Rules provided for the procedure
to be followed for giving effect to the Regulation.
The Rules defined “tax period” and provided the
periodicity for filing of returns and payment of
taxes and the procedure for complying with the
other requirements mandated under the
Regulation. The Rules also prescribed Forms for
statutory compliances.
(iii) Subsequent to the notification of the Rules, the
dealers were allowed a grace period till March 28,
2021, to file quarterly returns for the period, 2
nd
quarter of 2017-2018 to 3
rd quarter of 2020-2021,
in prescribed Form of A & N VAT 16 and for
22
clearing of dues if any for the said period. This
could not be done by the Administration in the
absence of the Rules. The grace period was granted
vide Office Order No.18 dated 07.01.2021. The
order operated prospectively and was in
consonance with Rule 25(2).
(iv) The compliance with the above mentioned office
order forms the primary basis for assessment.
Since the grace period was till March 28, 2021, no
assessment process could be initiated prior to that
date. Prior to initiation of assessment, notices
requiring submission of books of accounts and
other relevant records were served on the dealers,
which were duly acknowledged. The tax liability
was assessed on the basis of the records submitted
by the dealers.
(v) As multiple tax periods were involved i.e. period
between 01.07.2017 and 31.12.2020, all the tax
deficiencies were netted with excesses, if any,
arising between the said dates. Interest on dues, if
23
any, after such netting was concluded after March
28, 2021. Accordingly, multiple tax years were
consolidated in a single order for the convenience of
the dealers.
(vi) Penalties under the Regulation automatically arise
on default. Accordingly, penalty on default after
March 28, 2021, has been computed.
(vii) Statutory objections were filed by the dealers under
Section 74 of the Regulation. Upon hearing and
considering the cases on merits, reasoned orders
were passed by the Commissioner.
(viii) Regulation 76 provides for statutory appeal to the
appellate tribunal. The Court of Learned Chief
Judicial Magistrate-cum-Civil Judge (Senior
Division), Car Nicobar with link Court of Joint Civil
Judge (Senior Division), Sri Vijaya Puram, was
designated as the Appellate Tribunal under Section
73 of the Regulation in consultation with the
Hon’ble Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court
24
vide A & N Gazette Notification No. 69 of 2025
dated August 19, 2025, with immediate effect.
(ix) Therefore, the petitioner has an alternative
efficacious remedy in the form of statutory appeal
and on that ground, the writ petition should be
dismissed.
(x) The Tribunal is a quasi judicial authority.
Provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, Evidence
Act, etc, apply to it. The procedure for filing of an
appeal and the manner of conducting the appeal
have been prescribed in Rules 55(A), 55(B) and 55
(C).
23. On the point of limitation and the impugned notices
under sections 32 and 33 of the Regulation being time
barred, learned counsel for the Administration submitted
as follows:
(i) Section 34 prescribes that no assessment or
reassessment shall be made after the expiry of
four years from the end of the year for which
25
returns were furnished under section 26 or
section 28.
(ii) A reading of section 26 indicates that the returns
under the said sections are to be furnished in
the format and manner and within the date
prescribed by the Commissioner. However, no
such prescription was made prior to the
notification of the Rules.
(iii) Hence, in a situation where the procedural
mechanism necessary to initiate proceedings is
not in place, the initiation of any legal process
becomes impossible.
(iv) In such circumstances, the question of limitation
becomes inherently ambiguous as no proceeding
can be said to have been capable of being
initiated in the first place.
(v) In view of the fact that the procedural framework
was brought into force only on 14.12.2020
through the official notification of the A & N
26
Islands VAT Rules, 2020 and further considering
that registered dealers were granted a grace
period until 28.03.2021 for filing of returns and
clearance of past dues as per office order dated
07.01.2021, it is evident that no proceedings
could lawfully have been initiated prior to the
expiry of the grace period.
(vi) The limitation prescribed under the statute is to
be computed from ‘the end of the year for which
returns were filed”. In the present case, although
the returns relate to the years 2017-18 to 2020-
21, no prescribed return format existed till 2020
and a statutory grace period for filing of such
returns was granted upto 28.03.2021.
(vii) As a result, returns for the second quarter of
2017-2018 to the third quarter of 2020-2021
could not be lawfully filed prior thereto, and the
condition precedent for commencement of
limitation itself did not arise earlier.
27
(viii) The Hon’ble Supreme Court while interpreting
Article 113 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in the
case of Shakti Bhog Foods Ltd. Vs. Central
Bank of India (2020) 17 SCC 260 , has held
that limitation begins to run only when the right
to sue or initiate proceedings becomes complete
and enforceable in law, and not when it exists
merely in theory.
(ix) Though Article 113 of the schedule to the
Limitation Act may not apply in terms, the
underlying principle governing accrual of an
enforceable right is of general application and
can be legitimately imported while construing
the present limitation provision.
24. Applying the settled rules of interpretation ut res
magis valeat quam pereat, the expression “year for which
returns were filed” must be construed in a manner that
gives meaningful effect to the statutory scheme, rather than
rendering the filing requirement illusory or unworkable.
Accordingly, the limitation period can commence only from
28
the end of the financial year in which the returns were
lawfully filed i.e. 28.03.2021, and not from any earlier
notional date.
25. In reply, learned counsel for the petitioner submitted
that the order issued by the Commissioner on January 07,
2021, is of no effect. Such office order was never notified by
publication in the official gazette. Without such publication
the office order would have no effect as per Regulation
70(3). Even if the Commissioner was to issue notification
and publish the same in the official gazette, the same
would not have had retrospective effect.
COURT’S VIEW:
26. Having heard learned counsel for the parties, to my
mind, the following issues fall for adjudication:-
(i) Whether the present writ petition should be
entertained notwithstanding availability of an
alternative remedy in the form of a statutory appeal
under section 76 of the Regulation.
29
(ii) Whether or not, the notice of default assessment of
tax and interest dated December 31, 2024, under
section 32 of the Regulation is time barred.
(iii) Whether or not, the notice of assessment of
penalty under section 33 dated December 31, 2024,
is bad in law.
(iv) Whether or not both the notices dated December
31, 2024, stand vitiated by reason of the same
having been issued in breach of the principles of
natural justice.
(v) Whether or not the two notices, both dated
December 31, 2024, are bad in law for being vague
and bereft of material particulars.
27. Issue numbers (i),(ii), and (iv) are inter-related. I say
this because, the writ petitioner argued that the writ
petition is maintainable in spite of there being an
alternative remedy because the notice of assessment of tax
is time barred and therefore without jurisdiction and also
because both the notices dated December 31, 2024, are
30
vitiated by reason of breach of the principles of natural
justice. Hence, these three issues are taken up together for
discussion and decision.
28. It is not in dispute that the writ petitioner has an
alternative remedy in the form of section 76 of the
Regulation, which reads as follows:-
“76. (1) Any person aggrieved by a decision made by the
Commissioner under sections 74, 84 and 85 may
appeal to the Appellate Tribunal against such decision:
Provided that no appeal may be made against a non-
appealable order under section 79.
(2) Subject to the provisions of section 77, no appeal
shall be entertained unless it is made within two
months from the date of service of the decision appealed
against.
(3) Every appeal made under this section shall be in
form, verified in such manner and shall be accompanied
by such fee as may be prescribed.
(4) No appeal against an assessment shall be
entertained by the Appellate Tribunal unless the appeal
31
is accompanied by satisfactory proof of the payment of
the amount in dispute and any other amount assessed
as due from the person:
Provided that the Appellate Tribunal may, if it
thinks fit, for reasons to be recorded in writing,
entertain an appeal against such order without
payment of some or all of the amount in dispute, on the
appellant furnishing in the prescribed manner security
for such amount as it may direct:
Provided further that no appeal shall be
entertained by the Appellate Tribunal unless it is
satisfied that such amount as the appellant admits to
be due from him has been paid.
(5) In proceedings before the Appellate Tribunal—
(a) the person aggrieved shall be limited to
disputing only those matters stated in the
objection;
(b) the person aggrieved shall be limited to
arguing only those grounds stated in the
objection; and
32
(c) the person aggrieved may be permitted to
adduce evidence not presented to the
Commissioner for good and sufficient reasons.
(6) The Appellate Tribunal shall—
(a) in the case of an assessment, confirm, reduce,
or annul the assessment (including any penalty
and interest imposed);
(b) in the case of any other decision of the
Commissioner, affirm or reject the decision; or
(c) pass such other order for the determination of
the issue as it thinks fit:
Provided that the Appellate Tribunal shall give
reasons in writing for its decision which shall
include its findings on material questions of fact
and the evidence or other material on which those
findings were based.
(7) The Appellate Tribunal shall use its best endeavours
to make a final resolution of the matter before it and for
this purpose may make a decision in substitution for the
order in dispute, including the exercise or re-exercise of
any discretion or power vested in the Commissioner.
33
(8) The Appellate Tribunal shall not set aside an
assessment and remit the matter to the Commissioner
for a further assessment, unless it has first—
(a) advised the aggrieved person of the proposed
order;
(b) offered the person the opportunity to adduce
such further evidence before it as might assist the
Appellate Tribunal to reach a final determination.
(9) Where the Appellate Tribunal sets aside an
assessment and remits the matter to the Commissioner
for a further assessment, the Appellate Tribunal shall at
the same time order the Commissioner to refund to the
person some or all of the amount in dispute:
Provided that where no order is made, it shall be
presumed that the Appellate Tribunal has ordered the
refund of the amount in dispute.
(10) Where a person has failed to attend the hearing at
the time and place stipulated, the Appellate Tribunal
may adjourn the proceedings, strike out the appeal or
proceed to make an order determining the objection in
the absence of the person.
34
(11) Save as provided in section 81 and sub-section
(12), an order passed by the Appellate Tribunal on an
appeal shall be final.
(12) The Appellate Tribunal may rectify any mistake or
error apparent from the record of its proceedings.
(13) Any order passed by the Appellate Tribunal may be
reviewed suo motu or upon an application made in that
behalf:
Provided that before any order which is likely to
affect any person adversely is passed, such person
shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.”
29. It is true that on the date when the writ petition was
filed by M/s Seashell (WPA/345/2025], i.e., July 25, 2025,
the Appellate Tribunal was not functional. However, soon
thereafter, by a notification dated August 19, 2025, the
Chief Judicial Magistrate-cum-Civil Judge (Senior Division),
Car Nicobar with link Court of Joint Civil Judge (Senior
Division), Sri Vijaya Puram, was designated as the
35
Appellate Tribunal contemplated in section 76 of the VAT
Regulation, with immediate effect.
30. The ordinary rule, which is well established, is that
when an alternative efficacious remedy is available, the
High Court will not entertain a writ petition. This has
nothing to do with the jurisdiction of the High Court to
entertain such petition. An alternative remedy is not an
absolute bar to the High Court entertaining a writ petition.
This is a rule of self-imposed limitation by the High Court.
It is no more res integra that the jurisdiction of the High
Court under Artcile 226 of the Constitution of India cannot
be ousted or curtailed even by legislation far less by
existence of an alternative remedy in a particular case.
However, a writ of certiorari or mandamus or prohibition is
a discretionary remedy. The High Court normally refuses
to exercise its higher prerogative writ jurisdiction when the
writ petitioner has an alternative remedy available to him.
31. In PHR Invent Educational Society vs. UCO Bank
and others in Civil Appeal No 4845 of 2024 (arising out
36
of SLP (C) No.8867 of 2022), the Hon’ble Supreme Court
observed as follows:
“It could thus be seen that, this Court has clearly held that the
High Court will ordinarily not entertain a petition under Article
226 of the Constitution if an effective remedy is available to
the aggrieved person. It has been held that this rule applies
with greater rigour in matters involving recovery of taxes,
cess, fees, other types of public money and the dues of banks
and other financial institutions. The Court clearly observed
that, while dealing with the petitions involving challenge to the
action taken for recovery of the public dues, etc., the High
Court must keep in mind that the legislations enacted by
Parliament and State Legislatures for recovery of such dues
are a code unto themselves inasmuch as they not only contain
comprehensive procedure for recovery of the dues but also
envisage constitution of quasi-judicial bodies for redressal of
the grievance of any aggrieved person. It has been held that,
though the powers of the High Court under Article 226 of the
Constitution are of widest amplitude, still the Courts cannot
be oblivious of the rules of self-imposed restraint evolved by
this Court. The Court further held that though the rule of
exhaustion of alternative remedy is a rule of discretion and
37
not one of compulsion, still it is difficult to fathom any reason
why the High Court should entertain a petition filed
under Article 226 of the Constitution when there exists an
alternative remedy.
32. In the aforesaid case, the Hon’ble Apex Court clarified
that the High Court will not entertain a petition under
Article 226 of the Constitution, if an effective alternative
remedy is available to the aggrieved person and
particularly, if the statute under which the action
complained of has been taken itself contains a mechanism
for redressal of grievance.
33. In Babu Ram Prakash Chanda Maheshwari
Vs.Antarim Zilla Parisahd (1968 SCC Online SC 45),
the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that it is a well-
established proposition of law that when an alternative and
equally efficacious remedy is open to a litigant, he should
be required to pursue that remedy and not to invoke the
special jurisdiction of the High Court to issue a prerogative
writ. The existence of a statutory remedy does not affect the
jurisdiction of the High Court to issue a writ. However, the
38
existence of an adequate legal remedy is a thing to be taken
into consideration in the matter of granting writs and
where such a remedy exists it will be a sound exercise of
discretion to refuse to interfere in a writ petition unless
there are good grounds therefor. The rule requiring the
exhaustion of statutory remedies before the writ will be
issued, is a rule of policy, convenience and discretion
rather than a rule of law.
34. In United Bank of India vs. Satyawati Tondon and
others (2010) 8 SCC 110, in paragraphs 43 to 45 of the
reported judgment, the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed as
follows:
“43. Unfortunately, the High Court overlooked the settled law
that the High Court will ordinarily not entertain a petition
under Article 226 of the Constitution if an effective remedy is
available to the aggrieved person and that this rule applies
with greater rigour in matters involving recovery of taxes,
cess, fees, other types of public money and the dues of banks
and other financial institutions. In our view, while dealing
with the petitions involving challenge to the action taken for
recovery of the public dues, etc., the High Court must keep in
39
mind that the legislations enacted by Parliament and State
Legislatures for recovery of such dues are code unto
themselves inasmuch as they not only contain comprehensive
procedure for recovery of the dues but also envisage
constitution of quasi judicial bodies for redressal of the
grievance of any aggrieved person. Therefore, in all such
cases, High Court must insist that before availing remedy
under Article 226 of the Constitution, a person must exhaust
the remedies available under the relevant statute.
44. While expressing the aforesaid view, we are conscious
that the powers conferred upon the High Court under Article
226 of the Constitution to issue to any person or authority,
including in appropriate cases, any Government, directions,
orders or writs including the five prerogative writs for the
enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III or for
any other purpose are very wide and there is no express
limitation on exercise of that power but, at the same time, we
cannot be oblivious of the rules of self-imposed restraint
evolved by this Court, which every High Court is bound to
keep in view while exercising power under Article 226 of the
Constitution.
40
45. It is true that the rule of 19 exhaustion of alternative
remedy is a rule of discretion and not one of compulsion, but it
is difficult to fathom any reason why the High Court should
entertain a petition filed under Article 226 of the Constitution
and pass interim order ignoring the fact that the petitioner can
avail effective alternative remedy by filing application, appeal,
revision, etc. and the particular legislation contains a detailed
mechanism for redressal of his grievance.”
35. In Commissioner of Income Tax and others vs.
Chhabil Dass Agarwal, (2014) 1 SCC 603 , in paragraphs
11 to 15 of the reported judgment, the Hon’ble Supreme
Court observed as follows:
“11. Before discussing the fact proposition, we would notice
the principle of law as laid down by this Court. It is settled
law that non-entertainment of petitions under writ jurisdiction
by the High Court when an efficacious alternative remedy is
available is a rule of self-imposed limitation. It is essentially a
rule of policy, convenience and discretion rather than a rule of
law. Undoubtedly, it is within the discretion of the High Court
to grant relief under Article 226 despite the existence of an
41
alternative remedy. However, the High Court must not
interfere if there is an adequate efficacious alternative remedy
available to the petitioner and he has approached the High
Court without availing the same unless he has made out an
exceptional case warranting such interference or there exist
sufficient grounds to invoke the extraordinary jurisdiction
under Article 226. (See State of U.P. v. Mohd. Nooh [AIR 1958
SC 86] , Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of
Orissa [Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983)
2 SCC 433 : 1983 SCC (Tax) 131] , Harbanslal
Sahnia v. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd. [(2003) 2 SCC 107] and State
of H.P. v. Gujarat Ambuja Cement Ltd. [(2005) 6 SCC 499].
12. The Constitution Benches of this Court in K.S. Rashid and
Son v. Income Tax Investigation Commission [AIR 1954 SC
207] , Sangram Singh v. Election Tribunal [AIR 1955 SC 425]
, Union of India v. T.R. Varma [AIR 1957 SC 882] , State of
U.P. v. Mohd. Nooh [AIR 1958 SC 86] and K.S. Venkataraman
and Co. (P) Ltd. v. State of Madras [AIR 1966 SC 1089] have
held that though Article 226 confers very wide powers in the
matter of issuing writs on the High Court, the remedy of writ
is absolutely discretionary in character. If the High Court is
42
satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate or
suitable relief elsewhere, it can refuse to exercise its
jurisdiction. The Court, in extraordinary circumstances, may
exercise the power if it comes to the conclusion that there has
been a breach of the principles of natural justice or the
procedure required for decision has not been adopted.
[See N.T. Veluswami Thevar v. G. Raja Nainar [AIR 1959 SC
422] , MunicipalCouncil, Khurai v. Kamal Kumar [AIR 1965 SC
1321 : (1965) 2 SCR 653] , Siliguri Municipality v. Amalendu
Das [(1984) 2 SCC 436 : 1984 SCC (Tax) 133] , S.T.
Muthusami v. K. Natarajan [(1988) 1 SCC 572] , Rajasthan
SRTC v. Krishna Kant [(1995) 5 SCC 75 : 1995 SCC (L&S)
1207 : (1995) 31 ATC 110] , Kerala SEB v. Kurien E.
Kalathil [(2000) 6 SCC 293] , A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu v. S.
Chellappan [(2000) 7 SCC 695] , L.L. Sudhakar Reddy v. State
of A.P. [(2001) 6 SCC 634] , Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan
Swami (Moingiri Maharaj) Sahakari Dugdha Utpadak
Sanstha v. State of Maharashtra [(2001) 8 SCC 509] , Pratap
Singh v. State of Haryana [(2002) 7 SCC 484 : 2002 SCC
(L&S) 1075] and GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO [(2003) 1
SCC 72] .]
43
13. In Nivedita Sharma v. Cellular Operators Assn. of
India [(2011) 14 SCC 337 : (2012) 4 SCC (Civ) 947] , this Court
has held that where hierarchy of appeals is provided by the
statute, the party must exhaust the statutory remedies before
resorting to writ jurisdiction for relief and observed as follows:
(SCC pp. 343-45, paras 12-14)
“12. In Thansingh Nathmal v. Supt. of Taxes [AIR 1964 SC
1419] this Court adverted to the rule of self-imposed
restraint that the writ petition will not be entertained if an
effective remedy is available to the aggrieved person and
observed: (AIR p. 1423, para 7)
‘7. … The High Court does not therefore act as a court of
appeal against the decision of a court or tribunal, to
correct errors of fact, and does not by assuming
jurisdiction under Article 226 trench upon an alternative
remedy provided by the statute for obtaining relief.
Where it is open to the aggrieved petitioner to move
another tribunal, or even itself in another jurisdiction for
obtaining redress in the manner provided by a statute,
the High Court normally will not permit by entertaining
a petition under Article 226 of the Constitution the
machinery created under the statute to be bypassed,
44
and will leave the party applying to it to seek resort to
the machinery so set up.’
13. In Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of
Orissa [Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa,
(1983) 2 SCC 433 : 1983 SCC (Tax) 131] this Court
observed: (SCC pp. 440-41, para 11)
‘11. … It is now well recognised that where a right or
liability is created by a statute which gives a special
remedy for enforcing it, the remedy provided by that
statute only must be availed of. This rule was stated
with great clarity by Willes, J. in Wolverhampton New
Waterworks Co. v. Hawkesford [(1859) 6 CBNS 336 :
141 ER 486] in the following passage: (ER p. 495)
“… There are three classes of cases in which a liability
may be established founded upon a statute. … But
there is a third class viz. where a liability not existing at
common law is created by a statute which at the same
time gives a special and particular remedy for enforcing
it. … The remedy provided by the statute must be
followed, and it is not competent to the party to pursue
the course applicable to cases of the second class. The
45
form given by the statute must be adopted and adhered
to.”
The rule laid down in this passage was approved by the
House of Lords in Neville v. London Express Newspaper
Ltd. [1919 AC 368 : (1918-19) All ER Rep 61 (HL)] and
has been reaffirmed by the Privy Council in Attorney
General of Trinidad and Tobago v. Gordon Grant and
Co. Ltd. [1935 AC 532 (PC)] and Secy. of State v. Mask
and Co. [(1939-40) 67 IA 222 : (1940) 52 LW 1 : AIR
1940 PC 105] It has also been held to be equally
applicable to enforcement of rights, and has been
followed by this Court throughout. The High Court was
therefore justified in dismissing the writ petitions in
limine.’
14. In Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India [(1997) 5
SCC 536] B.P. Jeevan Reddy, J. (speaking for the majority
of the larger Bench) observed: (SCC p. 607, para 77)
‘77. … So far as the jurisdiction of the High Court under
Article 226—or for that matter, the jurisdiction of this
Court under Article 32—is concerned, it is obvious that
the provisions of the Act cannot bar and curtail these
46
remedies. It is, however, equally obvious that while
exercising the power under Article 226/Article 32, the
Court would certainly take note of the legislative intent
manifested in the provisions of the Act and would
exercise their jurisdiction consistent with the provisions
of the enactment.’”
(See G. Veerappa Pillai v. Raman & Raman Ltd. [(1952)
1 SCC 334 : AIR 1952 SC 192] , CCE v. Dunlop India
Ltd. [(1985) 1 SCC 260 : 1985 SCC (Tax) 75] , Ramendra
Kishore Biswas v. State of Tripura [(1999) 1 SCC 472 :
1999 SCC (L&S) 295] , Shivgonda Anna Patil v. State of
Maharashtra [(1999) 3 SCC 5] , C.A. Abraham
v. ITO [AIR 1961 SC 609 : (1961) 2 SCR 765] , Titaghur
Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa [Titaghur Paper
Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433 :
1983 SCC (Tax) 131] , Excise and Taxation Officer-cum-
Assessing Authority v. Gopi Nath and Sons [1992 Supp
(2) SCC 312] , Whirlpool Corpn. v. Registrar of Trade
Marks [(1998) 8 SCC 1] , Tin Plate Co. of India
Ltd. v. State of Bihar [(1998) 8 SCC 272] , Sheela
Devi v. Jaspal Singh [(1999) 1 SCC 209] and Punjab
National Bank v. O.C. Krishnan [(2001) 6 SCC 569].
47
14. In Union of India v. Guwahati Carbon Ltd. [(2012) 11 SCC
651] this Court has reiterated the aforesaid principle and
observed: (SCC p. 653, para 8)
“8. Before we discuss the correctness of the impugned
order, we intend to remind ourselves the observations
made by this Court in Munshi Ram v. Municipal Committee,
Chheharta [(1979) 3 SCC 83 : 1979 SCC (Tax) 205] . In the
said decision, this Court was pleased to observe that: (SCC
p. 88, para 23)
‘23. … [when] a revenue statute provides for a
person aggrieved by an assessment thereunder, a
particular remedy to be sought in a particular forum,
in a particular way, it must be sought in that forum
and in that manner, and all the other forums and
modes of seeking [remedy] are excluded.
15. Thus, while it can be said that this Court has recognised
some exceptions to the rule of alternative remedy i.e. where
the statutory authority has not acted in accordance with the
provisions of the enactment in question, or in defiance of the
fundamental principles of judicial procedure, or has resorted
to invoke the provisions which are repealed, or when an order
48
has been passed in total violation of the principles of natural
justice, the proposition laid down in Thansingh Nathmal
case [AIR 1964 SC 1419] , Titaghur Paper Mills case [Titaghur
Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433 :
1983 SCC (Tax) 131] and other similar judgments that the
High Court will not entertain a petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution if an effective alternative remedy is available to
the aggrieved person or the statute under which the action
complained of has been taken itself contains a mechanism for
redressal of grievance still holds the field. Therefore, when a
statutory forum is created by law for redressal of grievances,
a writ petition should not be entertained ignoring the statutory
dispensation.
36. Exceptions have been carved out by the Hon’ble
Supreme Court where in spite of the aggrieved person
having an alternative remedy available to him, the writ
Court may intervene.
37. In Whirlpool Corporation vs. Registrar of Trade Marks,
Mumabi and others, (1998) 8 SCC 1, The Hon’ble Supreme
Court held that an alternative remedy will not operate as a
49
bar to the maintainability of a writ petition in at least four
contingencies, namely, where the writ petition has been
filed for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights
or where there has been a violation of the principles of
natural justice or where the order or proceedings
challenged are wholly without jurisdiction or the vires of an
Act is challenged. This view has been reiterated by the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in a plethora of subsequent cases
and indeed in earlier cases also.
38. The writ petitioner argued that the notice of
assessment of tax and interest is without jurisdiction
because it is time barred. His argument is based on section
34 of the 2017 Regulation, which reads as follows:-
“34. (1) No assessment or re-assessment shall be made by the
Commissioner after the expiry of four years from—
(a) the end of the year comprising of one or more tax
periods for which the person furnished a return under
section 26 or section 28; or
50
(b) the date on which the Commissioner made an
assessment of tax for the tax period, whichever is the
earlier:
Provided that where the Commissioner has reason
to believe that tax was not paid by reason of
concealment, omission or failure to disclose fully
material particulars on the part of the person, the said
period shall stand extended to six years.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section
(1) the Commissioner may make an assessment of tax
within one year after the date of any decision of the
Appellate Tribunal or court where the assessment is
required to be made in consequence of, or to give effect
to, the decision of the Appellate Tribunal or court which
requires the re-assessment of the person.”
39. Learned counsel argued that the notice of assessment
having been issued on December 31, 2024, if one
calculates backward the financial years 2017-18, 2018-19
and 2019-20 would be beyond four years. The office of the
Commissioner did not have jurisdiction to assess or
51
reassess value added tax for the said three financial years.
Limitation is an issue bordering on the issue of jurisdiction.
Therefore, this writ petition will be maintainable in spite of
section 76 of the regulation providing the petitioner with an
alternative remedy in the form of statutory appeal.
40. I am unable to agree with learned counsel for the
petitioner. Firstly, limitation is ordinarily a mixed question
of fact and law. I am not to be understood as saying that
limitation can never be a pure question of law. If the facts
of a case are not in dispute, limitation may well be a pure
question of law. In such a case, the writ Court may still be
inclined to entertain a petition in spite of existence of an
alternative remedy.
41. However, generally speaking, limitation is a mixed
question of fact and law. There are authorities legion for
this proposition. I may refer to two of the very recent
decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. The first is in the
case of P.Kumarakurubaran vs. P.Narayanan and
others, Civil Appeal No. 5622 of 2025 (arising from
SLP(C) NO.2549 of 2021). The judgment of the Supreme
52
Court is dated April 29, 2025. It was observed by the
Hon’ble Supreme Court that the issue of limitation is a
mixed question of facts and law for which the parties will
have to lead evidence. The second is in the case of Shri
Mukund Bhavan Trust and Ors versus Shrimant
Chhatrapati Udayan Raje Pratapsinh Maharaj Bhonsle
and another, Civil Appeal No.14807 of 2024 (Arising
out of SLP (C) No.18977 of 2016..
42. In the present case, the petitioner submitted that it
duly filed returns under the VAT Regulation 2017 for the
four financial years in question. This has been denied by
the respondents in their affidavit-in-opposition. Copies of
returns have not been enclosed to the writ petition.
Therefore, the facts of the case, on the hinges of which the
issue of limitation has to be decided, are not admitted.
Hence, the issue of limitation, in my opinion, does not
partake the nature of a jurisdictional issue in the facts of
this case.
43. In my considered view, it cannot be said at this stage
that the impugned notices dated December 31, 2024, are
53
without jurisdiction and therefore, this writ petition is
maintainable notwithstanding availability of the appellate
remedy.
44. Secondly, having received the notices dated December
31,2024, the petitioner had two options open to it. It could
straightway approach the High Court in its writ jurisdiction
as it has done now contending that the notices are without
jurisdiction. Alternatively, it was open to it to file objection
to the notices in terms of section 74 of the Regulation. The
petitioner chose the second avenue. It filed a written
objection asking for a hearing. The hearing was held before
the Joint Commissioner. The Joint Commissioner by a
reasoned order dated July 22, 2025, overruled the
objection and upheld the two notices. Therefore, the
petitioner waived its rights, if any, to invoke the writ
jurisdiction of the High Court for challenging the impugned
notices and opted for the statutory avenue for challenging
such notices. Having been unsuccessful before the Joint
Commissioner, the petitioner cannot now be permitted to
invoke the writ jurisdiction to challenge the same notices.
54
45. In the course of hearing of this matter, it was
mentioned by learned counsel for the respondents that the
petitioner had, in fact, approached the writ court earlier.
The Court refused to interfere and relegated the petitioner
to the statutory avenue under section 74 of the Regulation
to file objection to the impugned notices. Although no such
court order is on record before me, even if that was the
case, still the petitioner would not be entitled to maintain
the present writ petition since the petitioner did not assail
such order before any higher forum but acted in terms
thereof.
46. Under challenge in this writ petition is also an order of
the Joint Commissioner dated July 22, 2025, rejecting the
petitioner’s objection to the impugned notices. It is
nobody’s case that said order suffers from jurisdictional
error. The order may be an erroneous order but that would
not entitle the petitioner to invoke the writ jurisdiction to
challenge that order, bypassing the statutory remedy of
appeal under section 76 of the Regulation.
55
47. Next, coming to the issue of breach of natural justice.
At the very beginning, I would like to quote paragraph 26 of
the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of
Swadeshi Cotton Mills vs. Union of India, 1981 (1) SCC
664.
“26. Well then, what is “natural justice”? The phrase is not
capable of a static and precise definition. It cannot be
imprisoned in the straight-jacket of a cast-iron formula.
Historically, “natural justice” has been used in a way “which
implies the existence of moral principles of self-evident and
unarguable truth”. In course of time, Judges nurtured in the
traditions of British jurisprudence, often invoked it in
conjunction with a reference to “equity and good conscience”.
Legal experts of earlier generations did not draw any
distinction between “natural justice” and “natural law”.
“Natural justice” was considered as “that part of natural law
which relates to the administration of justice”. Rules of
natural justice are not embodied rules. Being means to an end
and not an end in themselves, it is not possible to make an
exhaustive catalogue of such rules.”
56
48. Simply put, the principles of natural justice require
that nobody be condemned unheard. If the order of an
Authority is likely to have adverse civil consequences for a
citizen, that person should be granted an opportunity of
hearing before such order is passed. In most of the cases
what is required is a pre-decisional hearing. However, there
are cases galore where a post-decisional hearing may
suffice. This is often so in cases of action taken under
fiscal statutes. A taxing statute may provide for issuance of
notice imposing a tax burden/penalty on an assessee
without providing for a hearing prior to issuance of such
notice. But the statute may provide for an objection being
filed by the assessee to such notice and a full-fledged
hearing being given by the authority issuing such notice.
This would be post-decisional hearing but nonetheless
would pass the test of fairness. The assessee would have
full opportunity of assailing such notice and arguing why
such notice should be withdrawn or modified.
49. In the present case, I do not find any provision in the
Regulation requiring the office of the Commissioner to
57
grant an opportunity of hearing to the assessee prior to
issuing notices under sections 32 and 33 of the Regulation.
The said sections read as follows:
“32. (1) If any person—
(a) has not furnished returns required under this
Regulation by the prescribed date; or
(b) has furnished incomplete or incorrect returns; or
(c) has furnished a return which does not comply with
the requirements of this Regulation; or
(d) for any other reason the Commissioner is not
satisfied with the return furnished by a person,
the Commissioner may for reasons to be recorded in
writing assess or reassess to the best of his judgment
the amount of net tax due for a tax period or more than
one tax period by a single order so long as all such tax
periods are comprised in one year.
(2) If, upon the information which has come into his
possession, the Commissioner is satisfied that any
person who has been liable to pay tax under this
58
Regulation in respect of any period or periods, has
failed to get himself registered, the Commissioner may
for reasons to be recorded in writing, assess to the best
of his judgment the amount of net tax due for such tax
period or tax periods and all subsequent tax periods.
(3) Where the Commissioner has made an assessment
under this section, the Commissioner shall forthwith
serve on that person a notice of assessment of the
amount of any additional tax due for that tax period.
(4) Where the Commissioner has made an assessment
under this section and further tax is assessed as owed,
the amount of further tax assessed is due and payable
on the same date as the date on which the net tax for
the tax period was due.
33. (1) Where the Commissioner has reason to believe that a
liability to pay a penalty under this Regulation has
arisen, the Commissioner, after recording the reason in
writing, shall make and serve on the person a notice of
assessment of the penalty that is due under this
Regulation.
59
(2) The amount of any penalty assessed under this
section is due and payable on the date on which the
notice of assessment is served by the Commissioner.
(3) Any assessment made under this section shall be
without prejudice to prosecution for any offence under
this Regulation.”
50. However, section 74 of the Regulation provides an
opportunity to the assessee to file written objection to such
notices and participate in a hearing before the
Commissioner. This was the course of action adopted by
the present petitioner. The said section reads as follows:
“74. (1) Any person who is dissatisfied with—
(a) an assessment made under this Regulation (including an
assessment under section 33); or
(b) any other order or decision made under this Regulation,
may make an objection against such assessment, or order or
decision, as the case may be, to the Commissioner:
Provided that no objection may be made against a non-
appealable order as defined in section 79:
60
Provided further that no objection against an assessment
shall be entertained unless the amount of tax, interest or
penalty assessed that is not in dispute has been paid failing
which the objection shall be deemed to have not been filed:
Provided also that the Commissioner may, after giving to the
dealer an opportunity of being heard, may direct the dealer to
deposit an amount deemed reasonable, out of the amount
under dispute, before such objection is entertained:
Provided also that only one objection may be made by the
person against any assessment, decision or order:
Provided also that in the case of an objection to an amended
assessment, order, or decision, an objection may be made
only to the portion amended:
Provided also that no objection shall be made to the
Commissioner against an order made under section 84 or
section 85 if the Commissioner has not delegated his power
under the said sections to other Value Added Tax Authorities.
(2) A person who is aggrieved by the failure of the
Commissioner to reach a decision or issue any assessment or
61
order, or undertake any other procedure under this
Regulation, within six months after a request in writing was
served by the person, may make an objection against such
failure.
(3) An objection shall be in writing in the prescribed form and
shall state fully and in detail the grounds upon which the
objection is made.
(4) The objection shall be made—
(a) in the case of an objection made under sub-section
(1), within two months of the date of service of the
assessment, or order or decision, as the case may be; or
(b) in the case of an objection made under sub-section
(2), not earlier than six months and not later than eight
months after the written request was served by the
person:
Provided that where the Commissioner is satisfied that
the person was prevented for sufficient cause from
lodging the objection within the time specified, he may
accept an objection within a further period of two
months.
62
(5) The Commissioner shall conduct its proceedings by an
examination of the assessment, or order or decision, as the
case may be, the objection and any other document or
information as may be relevant:
Provided that where the person aggrieved, requests a hearing
in person, the person shall be afforded an opportunity to be
heard in person.
(6) Where a person has requested a hearing under sub-section
(5) and the person fails to attend the hearing at the time and
place stipulated, the Commissioner shall proceed and
determine the objection in the absence of the person.
(7) Within three months after the receipt of the objection, the
Commissioner shall either—
(a) accept the objection in whole or in part and take
appropriate action to give effect to the acceptance
(including the remission of any penalty assessed either
in whole or in part); or
(b) refuse the objection or the remainder of the objection,
as the case may be; and in either case, serve on the
63
person objecting, a notice in writing of the decision and
the reasons for it, including a statement of the evidence
on which it is based:
Provided that where the Commissioner within three
months of the making of the objection notifies the person
in writing, he may continue to consider the objection for
a further period of two months:
Provided further that the person may, in writing, request
the Commissioner to delay considering the objection for
a period of three months for the proper preparation of its
position, in which case the period of the adjournment
shall not be counted towards the period by which the
Commissioner shall reach his decision.
(8) Where the Commissioner has not notified the person of his
decision within the time specified under sub-section (7), the
person may serve a written notice requiring him to make a
decision within fifteen days.
(9) If the decision has not been made by the end of the period
of fifteen days after being given the notice referred to in sub-
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section (8), then, at the end of that period, the Commissioner
shall be deemed to have allowed the objection.
(10) (a) In case of revision of any order under this section or
any decision in objection is passed under this Regulation,
rules or notifications made thereunder, by any officer or
person subordinate to him, the Commissioner may, of his own
motion or upon information received by him, call for the record
of such order and examine whether—
(i) any turnover of sales has not been brought to tax or
has been brought to tax at lower rate, or has been
incorrectly classified, or any claim is incorrectly granted
or that the liability to tax is understated; or
(ii) any case, the order is erroneous, insofar as it is
prejudicial to the interest of revenue, and after
examination, the Commissioner may pass an order to
the best of his judgment, where necessary.
(b) (i) For the purpose of the examination and passing of
the order, the Commissioner may require, by service of
notice, the dealer to produce or cause to be produced
65
before him such books of account and other documents
or evidence as he thinks necessary for the purposes
aforesaid.
(ii) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained
in section 34, no order under this section shall be
passed after the expiry of four years from the end of the
year in which the order passed by the subordinate
officer has been served on the dealer.
(iii) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained
in section 34, where in respect of any order or part of
the said order passed by the subordinate officer, an
order has been passed by any authority hearing the
objection or any appellate authority including the
Tribunal or such order is pending for decision in
objection or in appeal, or an objection or an appeal is
filed, then, whether or not the issues involved in the
examination have been decided or raised in the
objection or the appeal, the Commissioner may, within
five years of the end of the year in which the said order
passed by the subordinate officer has been served on
the dealer, make a report to the said objection hearing
authority or the appellate authority including the
66
Tribunal regarding his examination or the report or the
information received by him and the said appellate
authority including the Tribunal shall thereupon, after
giving the dealer a reasonable opportunity of being
heard, pass an order to the best of its judgment, where
necessary.
(c) If the Commissioner has initiated any proceeding
before an appropriate forum against an issue which is
decided against the revenue by an order of the Tribunal,
then the Commissioner may, in respect of any order,
other than the order which is the subject-matter of the
order of the Tribunal, call for the record, conduct an
examination as aforesaid, record his findings, call for
the said books of account and other evidence and pass
an order as provided for under this section as if the
issue was not so decided against the revenue, but shall
stay the recovery of the dues including the interest or
penalty, insofar as they relate to such issue until the
decision by the appropriate forum and after such
decision, may modify the order of revision, if necessary.
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(d) No proceedings under this section shall be
entertained on any application made by a dealer or a
person.
(e) Notwithstanding anything contained in any
judgment, decree or order of any court, the provisions of
this Regulation, other than sections 99 to 101, shall be
deemed to have come into force with effect from the 1st
day of July, 2017.
(11) (a) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary
contained in section 34, the Commissioner may, at any
time within four years from the end of the year in which
any order passed by him has been served, on his own
motion, rectify any mistake apparent on record and
shall within the said period or thereafter rectify any
such mistake which has been brought to his notice
within the said period, by any person affected by such
order.
(b) The provisions of sub-section (1) shall apply to the
rectification of a mistake by the appellate authority or
an objection hearing authority as they apply to the
rectification of mistake by the Commissioner:
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Provided that where any matter has been considered
and decided in any proceedings by way of objection or
appeal or review in relation to any order or part of an
order, the authority passing the order on objection,
appeal or review, may, notwithstanding anything
contained in this Regulation, rectify the order or part of
the order on any matter other than the matter which has
been so considered and decided.
(c) Where any such rectification has the effect of
reducing the amount of the tax or penalty or interest, the
Commissioner shall refund any amount due to such
person in accordance with the provisions.
(d) Where any such rectification has the effect of
enhancing the amount of the tax or penalty or interest or
reducing the amount of refund, the Commissioner shall
recover the amount due from such person in accordance
with the provisions.
(e) Save as provided in the foregoing sub-sections, and
subject to such rules as may be prescribed, any
assessment or re-assessment made or order passed
69
under this Regulation or the rules made thereunder by
any person appointed under section 66 may be
reviewed by such person suo motu or upon an
application made in that behalf.”
51. That a post-decisional hearing may also be sufficient
compliance of the principles of natural justice in certain
cases would also appear from the following observations of
the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in paragraph 44 of
Swadeshi Cotton Mills (Supra)
“44. In short, the general principle — as distinguished from an
absolute rule of uniform application — seems to be that where
a statute does not, in terms, exclude this rule of prior hearing
but contemplates a post-decisional hearing amounting to a full
review of the original order on merits, then such a statute
would be construed as excluding the audi alteram partem rule
at the pre-decisional stage. Conversely, if the statute
conferring the power is silent with regard to the giving of a
pre-decisional hearing to the person affected and the
administrative decision taken by the authority involves civil
consequences of a grave nature, and no full review or appeal
on merits against that decision is provided, courts will be
70
extremely reluctant to construe such a statute as excluding
the duty of affording even a minimal hearing shorn of all its
formal trappings and dilatory features at the pre-decisional
stage, unless, viewed pragmatically, it would paralyse the
administrative progress or frustrate the need for utmost
promptitude. In short, this rule of fair play “must not be
jettisoned save in very exceptional circumstances where
compulsive necessity so demands”. The court must make
every effort to salvage this cardinal rule to the maximum
extent possible, with situational modifications. But, to recall
the words of Bhagwati, J., the core of it must, however,
remain, namely, that the person affected must have
reasonable opportunity of being heard and the hearing must
be a genuine hearing and not an empty public relations
exercise.
52. I am therefore of the considered view that there has
been no breach of the principles of nature justice on the
part of the respondents in the present case. In any event,
the petitioner has not been able to demonstrate any
prejudice that it has suffered by not being granted a
hearing prior to issuance of the notice of assessment of tax
71
and interest and notice of penalty. It had full opportunity
of hearing before the Joint Commissioner under section 74
of the 2017 Regulation, albeit post-facto.
53. Therefore, I am unable to agree with the petitioner’s
contention that this writ petition is maintainable in spite of
there being an alternative remedy for the reason that
principles of natural justice have been violated by the
respondents in issuing the impugned notices.
54. The decision in M/s Tata Teleservices Limited vs.
The State of Chhattisgarh and others rendered by the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Civil Appeal No.1993 of 2022
were on different facts. The assessee in that case had
straightway challenged the assessment order by way of a
writ petition, which is not the case here. In the present
case, as noted above, the writ petitioner chose to pursue
the statutory avenue of filing objection to the assessment
notice under Section 74 of the Regulation, thereby inviting
a decision on all the concerned issues from the
Commissioner. Having failed before the Commissioner the
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petitioner cannot now invoke the writ jurisdiction to
challenge the selfsame notice.
55. The decision of the Division Bench of this Court in
WP.TT No. 8 of 2025 (Jharna Saha vs. Joint
Commissioner Sales, Tax, Behala Charge and others)
was on West Bengal Value Added Tax Act. The provisions of
that Act are not identical with the provisions of the VAT
Regulation, 2017, which is in force in the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands. In any event, the reason why this decision
will not help the petitioner is the same reason for which the
decision in M/s Tata Teleservices Limited (supra) will not
be applicable to the facts of the case. For the same reason
again the decision in M/s Yogi Petroleum Limited (supra)
would not help the petitioner.
56. The ratio of the decision in the case of M/s Godrej
Sara Lee Ltd (Supra) is that cases where the controversy
is a purely legal one and it does not involve disputed
questions of fact but only questions of law, should be
decided by the High Court instead of dismissing the writ
petition on the ground of an alternative remedy being
73
available. In that case, a pure point of law was involved,
i.e., whether or not the revisional authority could exercise
suo motto power of revision of assessment order. In the
present case, as noted above, disputed questions of fact are
involved. Hence, the decision of M/s Godrej Sara Lee Ltd
(Supra) does not help the petitioner.
57. The other points urged by the petitioner clearly do not
pertain to the Commissioner’s jurisdiction to issue the
impugned notices or to the point of breach of natural
justice and are therefore, not relevant for the purpose of
deciding the issue of maintainability of this writ petition.
The petitioner will be at liberty to urge all points before the
Appellate Tribunal. It may be noted that the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands Value Added Tax Rules, 2020, were notified
on December 14, 2020. Rules 55A to 55C lay down the
procedure for filing of an appeal before the Appellate
Tribunal and for hearing of the appeal. It may also be noted
that the Appellate Tribunal is fully functional now.
58. A question that would naturally arise is whether it can
be said that a writ petition is not maintainable when on the
74
date of filing of the petition the alternative statutory remedy
was illusory by reason of the statutory appellate tribunal
being non-functional for want of presiding officer? Strictly
speaking, the answer should be in the negative since on the
date of filing the writ petition, the petitioner had no other
forum available to it. However, without going into the
question of maintainability or otherwise of WPA/345/2025,
I would like to put it in a different way. Since the Appellate
Tribunal is fully functional since August 19, 2025, even
though writ petitions were permitted to be filed prior to that
date, I would decline to issue writs of certiorari or
mandamus or prohibition in exercise of the high
prerogative writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the
Constitution. Once the Tribunal started functioning a few
days after WPA/345/2025 was filed, the petitioner ought to
have approached the Tribunal by not pressing the writ
application.
59. Under attack by the petitioner is an action of the
respondent authorities under the VAT Regulation, 2017,
which also provides a remedy to the petitioner. It is a fiscal
75
statute providing for an appeal against the Commissioner’s
order. The Appellate Tribunal’s order is stated to be final
subject to a review by the Tribunal. The VAT Regulation is
a complete Code in itself. In my opinion, the writ court
should be very slow to intervene in respect of orders which
are appealable to the Tribunal. Tax disputes are also more
effectively and conveniently adjudicable before the Tribunal
rather than the writ Court.
60. I am conscious of the line of cases which say that
once a writ petition is taken on record and affidavits are
exchanged, at the final hearing the writ petition should not
be dismissed on the ground of availability of an alternative
remedy. However, those cases may not be relevant if at the
final hearing the writ court is of the opinion that because of
existence of disputed facts or for any other reason, the
alternative remedy should be resorted to by the writ
petitioner. I am of the considered view that this is a case
where the disputes between the parties which pertain to a
fiscal statute and to an extent are factual in nature, should
be adjudicated by the Appellate Tribunal. I do not think
76
that just because the writ petitioner was permitted to file
this petition in the absence of a functional Appellate
Tribunal, the same would give the petitioner any vested
right to have the disputes adjudicated by the writ court.
61. I therefore direct that the records of all those writ
petitions out of the bunch of 47 petitions which have been
heard, which were filed prior to August 19, 2025, be
transferred/transmitted to the Appellate Tribunal
constituted under section 73 of the VAT Regulation, 2017.
All those writ petitioners as well as the respondents will be
entitled to file additional pleadings before the Tribunal. The
Tribunal will decide those cases in accordance with law. In
respect of all those pre-August 19, 2025, cases, the
Tribunal will not insist on pre-deposit being made in terms
of section 76 of the VAT Regulation, 2017. The appeals will
be decided within the statutory framework in accordance
with the applicable laws, Rules and Regulations. The said
writ petitions will be treated as disposed of insofar as the
records of this Court are concerned.
77
62. The records of the following writ petitions will be
transferred/ transmitted to the Appellate Tribunal.
(i) WPA/345/2025 (M/s. Seashell vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others).
(ii) WPA/391/2025 (Shri Praveen vs. The Lt.Govenor
and others)
(iii) WPA/392/2025 (Shri M/s Sinclairs Hotel
Limited vs. The Lt.Govenor and others).
(iv) WPA/393/2025 ( Smt Kalaiarasi vs. The Lt.
Governor and others].
(v) WPA/394/2025 (M/s. Aquays Hotels and
Resorts Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others).
(vi) WPA/395/2025 (Shri T. Kannan Vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others).
(vii) WPA/396/2025 (Shri. V. Ravichandran Vs. The
Lt. Governor and Others).
(viii) WPA/397/2025 (M/s. Hotel Sentinel Vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others).
78
(ix) WPA/398/2025 (Welcomehotel Bay Island, Unit
of ITC Hotel Ltd. Vs. The Lt. Governor and
Others).
(x) WPA/366/2025 (M/s. TSG Hotels and Resorts
vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xi) WPA/367/2025 (Shri V. Karuppaiah Vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xii) WPA/368/2025 (M/s. TSG Aqua (TSG Bella Bay)
Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xiii) WPA/369/2025 (Shri K. V. Rama Rao Vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xiv) WPA/399/2025 (M/s. Oriental Filling Station Vs.
The Lt. Governor and Others).
(xv) WPA/400/2025 (M/s. Jadwet Trading Company
Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
(xvi) WPA/401/2025 (M/s. Royal Petroleum Vs. The
Lt. Governor and Others).
(xvii) WPA/418/2025 (M/s. Kamala Trading Vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
79
(xviii) WPA/420/2025 (M/s. Manoj Marketing Vs. The
Lt. Governor and Others).
(xix) WPA/370/2025 (M/s. Holiday Inn –vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xx) WPA/371/2025 (Smti. Usha Moorthy –vs- The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxi) WPA/372/2025 (M/s. Aparupa Sands Marina
Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxii) WPA/373/2025 (M/s. Hotel Aparupa (A) Pvt.
Ltd. vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxiii) WPA/374/2025 (M/s. Southern Holdings and
Investments (Chennai) Pvt. Ltd Vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxiv) WPA/375/2025 (Shri K. V. Narsimha Rao Vs.
The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxv) WPA/381/2025 (M/s. Silver Sand Neil vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxvi) WPA/383/2025 (Smti. K. Shobha vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
80
(xxvii) WPA/384/2025 (M/s. C. S. Empire vs- The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xxviii) WPA/385/2025 (M/s. Pearl Park Beach Resort
vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
63. Insofar as the writ petitions filed on or after August
19, 2025, are concerned, the same shall stand dismissed
solely on the ground of availability of an alternative
statutory remedy. Those writ petitioners will be at liberty
to approach the Appellate Tribunal. If any question of
limitation/time-bar arises, the Tribunal shall decide the
issue taking into consideration the applicable provisions of
the Limitation Act, 1963, and in particular section 14
thereof as also the factum of pendency of the writ petitions
in this Court.
64. The following writ petitions stand dismissed.
(i) WPA/566/2025 (M/s. Hotel Arasi Vs. The Lt.
Governor and Others).
(ii) WPA/568/2025 (M/s. Medival Islander Inn Bar
Vs The Lt. Governor and Others).
81
(iii) WPA/569/2025 (M/s. Hotel Sarvottam (A) Pvt.
Ltd. Vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
(iv) WPA/570/2025 (M/s. Hotel Rajadeepam Vs The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(v) WPA/573/2025 (M/s. Whistling Wood Vs. The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(vi) WPA/574/2025 (M/s. Apt Bar and Restaurant
Vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(vii) WPA/575/2025 (M/s. Dharma Cool Bar Vs The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(viii) WPA/583/2025 (M/s. Hotel Raj Prakash Vs The
Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(ix) WPA/546/2025 (M/s. Annu Bar and Restaurant
vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
(x) WPA/547/2025 (M/s. Pristine Beach Resort vs.
The Lt. Governor and Others).
(xi) WPA/549/2025 (M/s. Ashoka Bar and
Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
82
(xii) WPA/550/2025 (M/s. B. R. B. Bar and
Restaurant Vs Lieutenant Governor and
Another).
(xiii) WPA/551/2025(M/s. Purna Pushpawalli Bar
and Restuarant Vs. Lieutenant Governor and
Another).
(xiv) WPA/552/2025(M/s. Stalin Bar and Restaurant
vs. The Lieutenant Governor and Others).
(xv) WPA/558/2025 (M/s Hotel A.T. Villa vs.The
Lieutenant Governor and others).
(xvi) WPA/562/2025 (M/s. Hotel Exel Bar and
Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
(xvii) WPA/563/2025 (M/s. Unique Bar and
Restaurant vs. The Lt. Governor and Others).
(xviii) WPA/564/2025 (M/s. G. International vs. The
Lt. Governor and Others).
(xix) WPA/565/2025 (M/s. G. M. S. Restaurant Vs
The Lt. Governor and Others).
83
65. I clarify that I have not touched the merits of the
respective cases of the writ petitioners in the 47 writ
petitions which are being disposed of by this judgment and
order. The Appellate Tribunal is requested to decide the
transferred cases or any appeal(s) that may be preferred by
any or all of the writ petitioners whose petitions stand
dismissed by this order, without being influenced by any
observation in this judgment and order.
66. All the writ petitions are disposed of on the above
terms.
67. Parties to act on the server copy of this order
downloaded from the official website of this Court.
( Arijit Banerjee, J. )
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