As per case facts, the appellant, Special Police Establishment (SPE), challenged a High Court order directing them to provide information about the sanction process for prosecuting the first respondent. The ...
2026 INSC 644 Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 1 of 32
REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CRIMINAL APPEAL NO.3743 OF 2024
SPECIAL POLICE ESTABLISHMENT APPELLANT
VERSUS
KAMTA PRASAD MISHRA AND OTHERS RESPONDENT S
J U D G M E N T
ATUL S. CHANDURKAR, J
1. The appellant is aggrieved by the direction to supply
information to the first respondent as regards details of the process
of grant of sanction for his prosecution under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988
1 as well as the response of the Lokayukt to
the queries made by him on various points.
According to the appellant, by virtue of Notification dated
25.08.2011 issued by the General Administration Department
2 of
the State of Madhya Pradesh in exercise of power under Section
24(4) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
3 and in view of Section
8(1)(h) thereof, it could not have been directed to supply such
1
For short, ‘the Act of 1988’
2
For short, ‘GAD’
3
For short, ‘the Act of 2005’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 2 of 32
information. On the other hand, according to the first respondent,
the information sought is liable to be provided as there is no legal
impediment in doing so.
Background facts
2. Bereft of unnecessary details, the first respondent while
serving as Town Inspector, Police Station Madhav Nagar, Katni
came to be implicated by the Special Police Establishment, Bhopal,
Madhya Pradesh under the Act of 1988 in a trap case. A First
Information Report was registered on 11.04.2017. The Home
Department of the State Government on 20.05.2020 granted
sanction for his prosecution. The first respondent desired
information with regard to the decision making process in the
grant of sanction and thus moved an application dated 01.07.2020
under Section 6(1) of the Act of 2005. The request for supply of
information having been turned down, the proceedings reached
the State Information Commission
4 at the behest of the first
respondent which, however, rejected the appeal filed by him on
16.12.2020. According to the Commission, the first respondent
was not entitled to be supplied the said information in view of
Section 8(1)(h) of the Act of 2005. Being aggrieved, the first
4
For short, ‘the Commission’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 3 of 32
respondent approached the High Court of Madhya Pradesh
5. The
Division Bench after hearing the first respondent found that the
investigation in the criminal proceedings was complete and
therefore the first respondent could not be denied such
information by relying upon Section 8(1)(h) of the Act of 2005. The
appellant was, accordingly, directed to supply the information
sought by the first respondent as per his application dated
01.07.2020. Being aggrieved by this direction, the present appeal
has been preferred.
Submissions of parties
3. Mr. Nishant Katneshwarkar, learned counsel appearing for
the appellant submitted that the High Court erred in directing the
appellant to supply the information sought by the first respondent.
According to him, in view of the provisions of Section 8(1)(h) of the
Act of 2005, the appellant was exempted from disclosing the
information sought by the first respondent inasmuch as that
information was likely to impede the process of investigation of the
criminal proceedings that had been initiated against him. He
further submitted that pursuant to Section 24(4) of the Act of
2005, the GAD of the State Government had issued a Notification
on 25.08.2011 by virtue of which the Act of 2005 was not made
5
For short, ‘the High Court’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 4 of 32
applicable to the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment of
Lokayukt Organisation
6. The investigation against the first
respondent having been carried out by the SPE, it was not
permissible to supply the information sought by him as the
provisions of the Act of 2005 were inapplicable. The High Court
failed to notice the provisions of Section 8(1)(h) of the Act of 2005
and directed supply of such information. Reference was made to
the Notification dated 25.08.2011 before the High Court but it was
not taken into consideration. On a plain reading of the same, it
was clear that the provisions of the Act of 2005 were not applicable
to the SPE. It was, therefore, submitted that the impugned
judgment of the High Court was liable to be set aside and the order
passed by the Commission ought to be restored.
4. Mr. Naveeen Kumar Singh, learned counsel appearing for the
first respondent supported the impugned order. According to him,
the provisions of Section 8(1)(h) of the Act of 2005 were not at all
attracted to the facts of the present case inasmuch as the
investigation of the offence registered against the first respondent
under the Act of 1988 was completed and a charge-sheet had been
filed. The object behind the provisions of Section 8(1)(h) of the Act
of 2005 was that information that was likely to impede the process
6
For short, ‘SPE’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 5 of 32
of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders was
not liable to be furnished. The first respondent had merely sought
information as to the manner in which sanction was granted to his
prosecution and the communications exchanged in that regar d.
Supply of such information was not likely to impede the process of
investigation. The High Court was, therefore, justified in directing
supply of the information sought by the first respondent on
01.07.2020. No case was, thus, made out to interfere with the
judgment of the High Court.
Issue re: applicability of Notification dated 25.08.2011
5. On behalf of the appellant, the issue as regards applicability
of the Notification dated 25.08.2011 was argued. Relying heavily
upon the same, it was urged that in view of the said Notification,
the impugned order could not have been passed. During the course
of hearing, the question whether the SPE while assisting the
Lokayukt in carrying out functions assigned to it under Section 3
of the Madhya Pradesh Lokayukt Evam Up -Lokayukt Adhiniyam,
1981
7 could be treated as an ‘intelligence and security’
organisation arose for consideration. Applicability of the said
Notification to the SPE in the absence of it being an ‘intelligence
and security’ organisation for the purposes of Section 24 (4) of the
7
For short, ‘the Act of 1981’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 6 of 32
Act of 2005 was, prima facie, doubted. There was no appearance
on behalf of the State of Madhya Pradesh on 14.05.2026. With a
view to have the response of the State Government, the following
order insofar as it is material for the present adjudication was
therefore passed:
“1. In the instant case order impugned dated 20.12.2021 passed
by the High Court of Madhya Pradesh, Principal Bench at Jabalpur
in Writ Petition No. 1575 of 2021 is under challenge whereby the High
Court directed that the order dated 17.08.2020 issued by the
Assistant Public Information Officer and order dated 16.12.2020 of
the Chief Information Commissioner are liable to be quashed. It was
further directed that the respondent shall supply information as
sought by the appellant as per his request dated 01.07.2020 within
30 days and imposed a costs of Rs. 5,000/-.
2. The said order has been assailed in this appeal on the pretext
that as per Notification of the State Government dated 25.08.2011
exemption is granted to Madhya Pradesh Special Police
Establishment of Lokayukta Organisation, however, without taking
note of the said notification directions have been issued.
3. During the course of hearing, the provisions of Section 24(1) of
the Right to Information Act, 2005, (in short, “the RTI Act), applies to
the intelligence and security organisation of the Central Government
specified in the Second Schedule. In the Second Schedule, certain
organisations have been specified which are of the Central
Government.
4. Sub-section (4) of Section 24 of the RTI Act further specifies that
the provisions of the Act shall not apply to such intelligence and
security organisations established by the State Government if notified
in the Official Gazette. Thus, for issuance of the notification of
exemption under Section 24(4), it is incumbent to understand how
Lokayukta established is an intelligence and security organisation;
but nothing has been brought on record. In absence, the notification
dated 25.08.2011 is contrary to the spirit of Section 24(1) read with
Section 24(4) of the RTI Act. The counter affidavit filed by the State is
silent on this point, however, response of the State Government, if
any, may be filed, otherwise such notification do not have any
sanction of law.”
xxxxxxxx
“8. The Advocate General of the State may clarify about paragraph
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 7 of 32
4 above and to appear for argument on the next date, if he wish to
appear virtually, he is at liberty to do so. In absence of clarification,
appropriate orders may be passed.”
6. On 20.05.2026, Ms. Manisha Karia, learned Senior Advocate
as well as Mr. Prashant Singh, learned Advocate General for the
State of Madhya Pradesh were heard. It was submitted by them
that the Notification dated 25.08.2011 had not been challenged by
the first respondent in the writ petition preferred by him before the
High Court. There were no pleadings whatsoever raised in that
regard. In absence of any such material pleadings, it was
submitted that the validity of the said Notification may not be
examined for the first time by this Court. Without prejudice to the
aforesaid, it was submitted that the State Legislature was
competent to enact the Act of 1981. Reference was made to the
Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India and Entries 1 and 2
of List II to justify the exercise of power in this regard. Referring to
the object behind enacting the Act of 1981, it was submitted that
the Lokayukt was a statutory investigative authority vested with
plenary powers of enquiry and its jurisdiction extended to
allegations of corruption, misconduct and malfeasance by a public
servant. The SPE functioned as an investigative arm under the
superintendence of the Lokayukt. It was in this backdrop that the
power conferred by Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005 had been
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 8 of 32
exercised and the Notification dated 25.08.2011 had been issued
keeping in mind the principle of institutional parity. The object
behind Section 24 of the Act of 2005 would be defeated if the State
Government was compelled to furnish information which was
sought to be exempted by virtue of that provision. Reference was
made to Section 207 of the Code of the Criminal Procedure, 1973
to urge that at the initial stage of investigation, material collected
by the investigating agency could not be sought by an accused.
It was, therefore, submitted that the view taken by the
Commission was correct and the High Court was not justified in
directing supply of information sought by the first respondent. In
view of the Notification dated 25.08.2011, the impugned order was
liable to be set aside.
Consideration
7. We have heard the learned counsel for the parties at length.
We have also given due consideration to the relevant material on
record as well as material furnished by the learned counsel for the
parties. The High Court while allowing the writ petition preferred
by the first respondent held that the information sought by him
could not be denied by relying upon Section 8(1)(h) of the Act of
2005. Before this Court, the Notification dated 25.08.2011 was
relied upon to urge that the High Court could not have directed
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 9 of 32
supply of such information. It is in that context that the
applicability of the Notification dated 25.08.2011 was debated.
Besides its inapplicability, the question whether the SPE was an
‘intelligence and security’ organisation for the purposes of Section
24(4) of the Act of 2005 arose for consideration. It is true that the
said Notification was not specifically challenged in the writ petition
before the High Court. It is also a fact that the appellant had not
specifically supported the order passed by the Commission by
relying upon the same. The Notification was placed before this
Court in the present proceedings and the impugned order was
sought to be assailed by relying upon the Notification dated
25.08.2011. It was at this stage that the issue as regards
applicability of the Notification dated 25.08.2011 arose. It would,
therefore, be necessary to consider whether this Court should
examine the validity of the Notification dated 25.08.2011,
especially when the same had not been challenged by the first
respondent in his writ petition before the High Court.
Exercise of suo motu jurisdiction
8. The exercise of suo motu jurisdiction by the Court in
examining the validity of a subordinate piece of legislation has
been the subject matter of consideration in various decisions.
Recently, in Bihar Rajya Dafadar Chaukidar Panchayat (Magadh
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 10 of 32
Division) Vs. State of Bihar and others
8, it was observed in
paragraph 33 as under:
“33. …While not suggesting for a moment that the course of action
which the Division Bench adopted in this case can routinely be adopted,
we see no reason as to why the power to suo motu declare a subordinate
legislation invalid, on the ground of its being manifestly contrary to a
Fundamental Right read with binding precedents in terms of Article
141, should not be conceded to be within the vast reserve of powers of
the Constitutional Courts. Though exercise of powers, suo motu, in an
appropriate case in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 226 of the
Constitution cannot be doubted, it is indubitable that such power has
to be exercised sparingly and with due care, caution and
circumspection. We are minded and do hold that, a writ court, when its
finds its conscience to be pricked in a rare and very exceptional case by
the patent unconstitutionality of a subordinate legislation connected
with the issue it is seized of, may, upon grant of full opportunity to the
State to defend the subordinate legislation and after hearing it, grant a
declaration as to unconstitutionality and/or invalidity of such
legislation. After all, as the sentinel on the qui vive, it is not only the
duty of the writ courts in the country to enforce Fundamental Rights of
individuals, who approach them, but it is equally the duty of the writ
courts to guard against breach of Fundamental Rights of others by the
three organs of the State. This power is a plenary power resident in all
the Constitutional Courts. Should, in a given case, it be found that there
has been an egregious violation of a Fundamental Right as a result of
operation of a subordinate legislation and the issue I concluded by a
binding decision of this Court, we consider it the duty of the writ courts
to deliver justice by declaring the subordinate legislation void to
safeguard rights of others who might not still have been affected
thereby. We reiterate, it can only be done rarely and in cases which
stand out from the ordinary.”
9. Absence of a prayer seeking declaration of invalidity of a piece
of subordinate legislation by itself would not deter the Court from
testing its validity. Such issue can be examined but after granting
opportunity to the concerned authority to justify its validity. We
may in this regard refer to the decision in Bharathidasan
8
SLP(C) No.18983 of 2023 decided on 02.04.2025
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 11 of 32
University and another Vs. All India Council for Technical
Education and others
9. The issue related to examining the validity
of a regulation duly framed. It was found that the regulation
provided for a matter that was beyond its authority. In that
context, the following observations are material for the present
purpose:
“The AICTE cannot, in our view, make any regulation in exercise
of its powers under Section 23 of the Act, notwithstanding sub-
section (1), which though no doubt enables such regulations being
made generally to carry out the purposes of the Act, when such power
is circumscribed by the specific limitation engrafted therein to ensure
them to be “not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act and the
rules…..” So far as the question of granting approval, leave alone prior
or post, Section 10(1)(k) specifically confines the limits of such power
of AICTE only to be exercised vis-a-vis technical institutions, as
defined in the Act and not generally. When the language is specific,
unambiguous and positive, the same cannot be over-looked to give
an expansive meaning under the pretext of a purposive construction
to perpetuate an ideological object and aim, which also, having regard
to the Statement of Objects and Reasons for the AICTE Act, are not
warranted or justified. Therefore, the regulation insofar as it compels
the universities to seek for and obtain prior approval and not to start
any new department or course or programme in technical education
(Regulation 4) and empower itself to withdraw such approval, in a
given case of contravention of the regulations (Regulation 12) are
directly opposed to and inconsistent with the provisions of Section
10(1)(k) of the Act and consequently void and unenforceable.
The fact that the regulations may have the force of law or when
made have to be laid down before the legislature concerned do not
confer any more sanctity or immunity as though they are statutory
provisions themselves. Consequently, when the power to make
regulations are confined to certain limits and made to flow in a well
defined canal within stipulated banks, those actually made or shown
and found to be not made within its confines but outside them, the
courts are bound to ignore them when the question o f their
enforcement arise and the mere fact that there was no specific relief
sought for to strike down or declare them ultra vires, particularly
when the party in sufferance is a respondent to the lis or proceedings
9
2001 INSC 454
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 12 of 32
cannot confer any further sanctity or authority and validity which it
is shown and found to obviously and patently lack. It would,
therefore, be a myth to state that regulations made under Section 23
of the Act have “Constitutional” and legal status, even unmindful of
the fact that anyone or more of them are found to be not consistent
with specific provisions of the Act itself. Thus, the regulations in
question, which the AICTE could not have made so as to bind
universities/UGC within the confines of the powers conferred upon
it, cannot be enforced against or bind an University in the matter of
any necessity to seek prior approval to commence a new department
or course and programme in technical education in any university or
any of its departments and constituent institutions.”
(emphasis supplied by us)
10. We are conscious of the fact that in Union of India and
others vs. Manjurani Routray and others
10, this Court has held
that before any provision of law is struck down or any Rule is
declared as ultra vires, specific pleadings raising a challenge and
seeking of such relief is necessary. Therein, an original application
was filed by a private respondent raising a challenge to the order
of promotion issued to her juniors. The Central Administrative
Tribunal directed the employer to indicate the reasons for non-
promotion of the private respondent by assigning reasons in that
regard. This order was challenged by the said respondent before
the High Court. While deciding the writ petition, the High Court
examined the vires of Rule 4(b) of the Ministry of Information
Technology (in-situ Promotion under Flexible Complementing
Scheme) Rules, 1998 and held the same to be invalid in law. The
10
2023 INSC 787
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 13 of 32
Union of India challenged the judgment urging that in absence of
any specific challenge being raised by the private respondent to the
vires of Rule 4(b), the High Court could not have entertained such
challenge. In that context, this Court held that in absence of
specific pleadings being raised for challenging the vires of Rule 4
(b), there would be no opportunity to the other side to justify the
validity of such Rule. It was held that the High Court was not
justified in declaring Rule 4(b) of the Ministry of Information
Technology (in-situ Promotion under Flexible Complementing
Scheme) Rules, 1998 as ultra vires. One of us (J. K. Maheshwari,
J) was a party to the aforesaid decision.
In the present case, it is true that there is no specific
challenge raised by the first respondent to the Notification dated
25.08.2011. However, while assailing the order passed by the High
Court, the Notification dated 25.08.2011 has been relied upon by
the appellant to urge that the information sought by the first
respondent could not be supplied to him as the SPE was an
‘intelligence and security’ organisation that was excluded from the
applicability of the Act of 2005. The issue of applicability as well
as validity of the Notification dated 25.08.2011 having arisen, due
opportunity was granted to the State Government to justify the
same. Time was granted to the learned Advocate General to place
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 14 of 32
on record the stand of the State Government and also to
substantiate the contention that the Notification dated 25.08.2011
was in consonance with Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005 . The
opportunity so granted was utilised and the State Government
through Ms. Manisha Karia, learned Senior Advocate as well as
Mr. Prashant Singh, learned Advocate General for the State of
Madhya Pradesh were heard extensively. The State was also
permitted to place on record its written submissions in that regard.
The same have been accordingly filed.
It is, thus, evident that sufficient opportunity was granted to
the State Government to make its stand clear with regard to the
Notification dated 25.08.2011 and also to justify its validity in the
context of Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005.
11. In the present case, we are concerned with the aspect as to
whether the SPE as constituted under Section 2(1) of the Madhya
Pradesh Special Police Establishment Act, 1947
11 for investigating
offences specified by the State Government under Section 3 of the
Act of 1947 is entitled to exemption from the application of the Act
of 2005 by virtue of Section 24(4) thereof. What requires
examination is whether the SPE is an ‘intelligence and security’
organisation, given the nature of offences it can investigate. To put
11
For short, ‘the Act of 1947’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 15 of 32
it differently, whether the SPE can seek exemption from the
application of the Act of 2005 on the ground that it is an
‘intelligence and security’ organisation. A pure question of
interpretation of the relevant provisions of the Act of 1947 and the
Act of 1981 in the context of Section 24 of the Act of 2005 arises.
The issue whether the Notification dated 25.08.2011 provides for
a matter beyond the parent legislation or whether it is intra vires
Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005 has to be examined. In absence of
any factual adjudication being required to be undertaken and a
pure question of interpretation having arisen, we are inclined to
examine this legal question though it was not specifically raised
before the High Court.
Grounds for challenging subordinate legislation
12. It is by now well settled that a piece of subordinate legislation
does not carry the same degree of immunity that is enjoyed by a
statute passed by a competent legislature. Besides the grounds on
which plenary legislation can be challenged, subordinate
legislation can also be challenged on the ground that it fails to
conform to the statute under which it is made or it exceeds the
limits of authority conferred by the enabling statute. In Indian
Express Newspapers (Bombay) Private Ltd. and others etc. Vs.
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 16 of 32
Union of India and others etc.
12, a three Judge Bench of this
Court observed as under:
“A piece of subordinate legislation does not carry the same degree of
immunity which is enjoyed by a statute passed by a competent
legislature. Subordinate legislation may be questioned on any of the
grounds on which plenary legislation is questioned. In addition it may
also be questioned on the ground that it does not conform to the
statute under which it is made. It may further be questioned on the
ground that it is contrary to some other statute.”
This view has been consistently followed. In State of Tamil
Nadu and another Vs. P. Krishnamurthy and others
13, it was
held as under:
“There is a presumption in favour of constitutionality or validity
of a subordinate legislation and the burden is upon him who attacks
it to show that it is invalid. It is also well recognized that a
subordinate legislation can be challenged under any of the following
grounds:
(a) Lack of legislative competence to make the subordinate
legislation.
(b) Violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under the
Constitution of India.
(c) Violation of any provision of the Constitution of India.
(d) Failure to conform to the statute under which it is made or
exceeding the limits of authority conferred by the enabling Act.
(e) Repugnancy to the laws of the land, that is, any enactment.
(f) Manifest arbitrariness/unreasonableness (to an extent where
the court might well say that the legislature never intended to
give authority to make such rules).”
Statutory scheme
13. For considering the aforesaid question, it would be necessary
to refer to some relevant provisions of the Act of 2005. Section 3
12
1984 INSC 231
13
2006 INSC 177
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 17 of 32
recognises the right of all citizens to information. A request for
obtaining ‘information’ as defined by Section 2(f) is required to be
made under Section 6 of the Act of 2005. While such request has
to be considered and disposed in accordance with Section 7,
Section 8(1) exempts disclosure of information in certain
contingencies. Section 8(1)(h) reads thus:
“8. Exemption from disclosure of information. -(1)
Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, there shall be no
obligation to give any citizen,-
(h) information which would impede the process of investigation or
apprehension or prosecution of offenders;”
Since the appellant has relied upon the provisions of Section
24 and especially Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005, the said
provision is reproduced hereunder:
“24. Act not to apply in certain organizations -(1) Nothing
contained in this Act shall apply to the intelligence and security
organisations specified in the Second Schedule, being organisations
established by the Central Government or any information furnished
by such organisations to that Government:
Provided that the information pertaining to the allegations of
corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under
this sub-section:
Provided further that in the case of information sought for is
in respect of allegations of violation of human rights, the information
shall only be provided after the approval of the Central Information
Commission, and notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7,
such information shall be provided within forty-five days from the
date of the receipt of request.
(2) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, amend the Schedule by including therein any other
intelligence or security organisation established by that Government
or omitting therefrom any organisation already specified therein and
on the publication of such notification, such organisation shall be
deemed to be included in or, as the case may be, omitted from the
Schedule.
(3) Every notification issued under sub-section (2) shall be laid
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 18 of 32
before each House of Parliament.
(4) Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to such
intelligence and security organisations, being organisations
established by the State Government, as that Government may, from
time to time, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify:
Provided that the information pertaining to the allegations of
corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under
this sub-section:
Provided further that in the case of information sought for is
in respect of allegations of violation of human rights, the information
shall only be provided after the approval of the State Information
Commission and, notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7,
such information shall be provided within forty-five days from the
date of the receipt of request.
(5) Every notification issued under sub-section (4) shall be laid
before the State Legislature.”
It is to the noted that Section 24(1) and Section 24(4) use the
expression ‘intelligence and security organisations’. This would
indicate that an organisation governed by the said provision ought
to be empowered to go into aspects of ‘intelligence’ and ‘security’.
14. Section 24(1) of the Act of 2005 states that the provisions of
the Act would not apply to ‘intelligence and security’ organisations
specified in the Second Schedule to the Act of 2005. Perusal of the
Second Schedule indicates reference to about twenty-six
organisations concerned with ‘intelligence’ and ‘security’ that have
been established by the Central Government. Section 24(4) states
that nothing contained in the Act of 2005 would apply to such
‘intelligence and security’ organisations established by the State
Government as notified in the Official Gazette. The exemption from
application of the provisions of the Act of 2005 is, therefore,
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 19 of 32
restricted to ‘intelligence and security’ organisations that have
been established by the State Government by publishing
Notification in the Official Gazette. The first proviso to Section 24(4)
of the Act of 2005, however, does not exclude information
pertaining to allegations of corruption and violation of human
rights.
15. The expression ‘intelligence and security’ organisations found
in Section 24 has not been defined in the Act of 2005. We may,
therefore, consider the nature of various organisations established
by the Central Government which are concerned with ‘intelligence
and security’ that are referred to in the Second Schedule. For
example, the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) was established on
01.05.1956 for handling Exchange Control laws violations under
the Foreign Exchange Regulations Act, 1947. One of its functions
is to collect, develop and disseminate intelligence relating to the
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. The Central Reserve
Police Force has been mentioned in the Second Schedule. As per
the Central Reserve Police Force Act, 1949, it is an armed force
maintained by the Central Government and is concerned with
internal security. A member of the force has to execute all orders
and warrants lawfully issued to him, detect and bring offenders to
justice and also apprehend all persons whom he is legally
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 20 of 32
authorised to apprehend. Then, the Border Security Force
constituted under the Border Security Force Act, 1968 is an armed
force of the Union for ensuring the security of the borders of India.
Similarly, the Central Industrial Security Force is an armed force
of the Union constituted under the Central Industrial Security
Force Act, 1968 for better protection and security of industrial
undertakings owned by the Central Government. The National
Investigation Agency is also referred to in the Second Schedule. It
is an investigation agency at the national level constituted to
investigate and prosecute offences affecting the sovereignty,
security and integrity of India.
It is, thus, clear that organisations referred to in the Second
Schedule to the Act of 2005 are specifically concerned with
‘intelligence’ and ‘security’, having been constituted by the Central
Government with that object in mind. On the other hand, the SPE
has been clothed with limited jurisdiction to investigate offences
punishable under the Act of 1988, Sections 409, 420 and Chapter
XVIII of the Penal Code. The submission on behalf of the State of
Madhya Pradesh that the principle of institutional parity was
considered while issuing the Notification dated 25.08.2011
therefore cannot be accepted.
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 21 of 32
Notification dated 25.08.2011
16. In exercise of the power conferred by Section 24(4) of the Act
of 2005, the GAD of the State of Madhya Pradesh has issued
Notification dated 25.08.2011 wherein it is stated that the
provisions of the Act of 2005 would not apply to cases under
investigation by the SPE and the State Bureau of Investigation of
Economic Offences. The Notification dated 25.08.2011 reads as
under:
“Whereas the State Government considers that the disclosure of the
information regarding names of informers or complainants in the
economic offences under investigation in Madhya Pradesh Special
Police Establishment of Lokayukta Organization and State Bureau of
Investigation of Economic Offences under the Right to Information
Act, 2005 (No. 22 of 2005) may likely to endanger the life or physical
safety of such informers or complainants;
And whereas the State Government also considered that the
disclosure of the information in the economic offences under the
investigation in the said organization would impede the process of
investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders;
And whereas Section 8(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (No.
22 of 2005) provides for exemption from disclosure of information on
certain grounds, whereas clause (g) provides that information, the
disclosure of which would endanger the life of physical safety of any
person or identify the source of information, and clause (h) provides
that information which would impede the process of investigation or
apprehension or prosecution of offenders shall be denied to any
citizen;
Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (4)
of Section 24 of the said Act, the State Government, hereby specify
that the provisions of the said Act shall not apply with respect to the
cases under investigation by the following organizations:-
1. Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment of Lokayukta
Organization.
2. State Bureau of Investigation of Economic Offences.”
SPE whether an ‘intelligence’ and ‘security’ Organization
17. It would now be necessary to consider whether the SPE is an
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 22 of 32
‘intelligence’ and ‘security’ organisation. For this purpose, relevant
provisions of the Act of 1981 may be noticed. The Statement of
Objects and Reasons behind enacting the Act of 1981 reads as
under:
“Statement of Objects and Reasons
Currently there is no mechanism in place to investigate into
allegations of corruption, etc., against high ranking individuals such
as the Chief Minister, other elected officials and senior officers under
the control of the State Government and in order to maintain ethical
standards in public life, there has been a need since long time to
establish an independent mechanism for this purpose. Therefore,
this Bill has been formulated to establish such a mechanism.
Hence, this Bill is presented.
Bhopal:
Date : 19 September 1980.
Arjun Singh
Member-in-Charge
Recommended by His Excellency the Governor under Article 207 of
the Constitution of India.”
The Statement of Objects and Reasons indicates the absence
of a mechanism to investigate into allegations of corruption against
high ranking individuals and the need to establish such
independent mechanism. The preamble of the Act of 1981 reads as
under:
“An Act to make provision for the appointment and functions of
certain authorities for the enquiry into the allegations against [public
servants] [Substituted by M.P.Act No.1 of 1987 (w.e.f. 9-1-1987).] and
for matters connected therewith.”
Section 2(b) defines the expression ‘allegation’ which reads as
under:
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 23 of 32
“2. Definitions – In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,-
(b) “allegation” in relation to a public servant means any affirmation
that such public servant,-
(i) has abused his position as such to obtain any gain or favour
to himself or to any other person or to cause undue harm to any
person;
(ii) was actuated in the discharge of his functions as such public
servant by improper or corrupt motives;
(iii) is guilty of corruption; or
(iv) is in possession of pecuniary resources or property
disproportionate to his known source of income and such
pecuniary resources or property is held by the public servant
personally or by any member of his family or by some other
person on his behalf.
Explanation:– For the purpose of this sub-clause “family” means
husband, wife, sons and unmarried daughters living jointly with
him;”
Section 7 of the Act of 1981 specifies the matters that may be
enquired into by the Lokayukt or Up-Lokayukt. Section 7 reads as
under:
“
14 [7. Matters which may be enquired into by Lokayukt or Up -
Lokayukt-Subject to the provision of this Act, on receiving complaint
or other information-
(i) the Lokayukt may proceed to enquire into an allegation made
against a public servant in relation to whom the Chief Minister
is the competent authority;
(ii) the Up-Lokayukt may proceed to enquire into an allegation
made against any public servant other than referred to in
clause(i):
Provided that the Lokayukt may enquire into an allegation made
against any public servant referred to in clause (ii).]
15[Explanation. – For the purposes of this section the expressions
“may proceed to enquire”, and “may enquire,” include investigation
by police agency put at the disposal of Lokayukt and Up-Lokayukt in
pursuance of sub-section (3) of section 13.]”
18. The official website of Lokayukt Organisation, Madhya
14
Subs. by M.P. Act No.7 of 1982 (w.e.f. 28-1-1982)
15
Ins. By M.P. Act No.20 of 1984 (w.e.f. 16-5-1984)
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 24 of 32
Pradesh at mplokayukt.nic.in gives the following information:
“About Lokayukt Organization
The Lokayuykt Organization in Madhya Pradesh came into existence
in Feb.1982 after the Madhya Pradesh Lokayuykt and Up-Lokayukt
Act, 1981 (hereinafter called the Act) was enacted by the State
Legislature. Attempt to establish an independent Organization on the
lines of "Ombudsman" started way back in mid 70’s after the State
Administrative Reforms Commission recommended that the State
Vigilance Commission, which was then functioning as an instrument
to prevent/check corruption should be replaced by an organization
with statutory base and powers. Examining the role and limitations
of the State Vigilance Commission, the ARC had observed that in the
absence of a constitutional or even statutory recognition of its
position, the Vigilance Commission might act at best as a department
of the Government to check corruption. In view of the above
observations of the ARC and on the basis of various
recommendations received from the Government of India, a bill was
moved in the M.P. Legislative Assembly in the year 1975 which was
sent for President’s assent after its passage by the Assembly. But due
to certain rethinking at the level of the Union Government the bill
was returned to the State Government for reconsideration and the
same was passed in April 1981 with certain modifications. The bill so
passed became the Act after it received the Presidential assent in
September 1981.
The Lokayukt Organization constituted under the Act replaced the
Vigilance Commission. Having received the statutory base the
Lokayukt Organization is totally free from the executive influence.
Indeed, the organization functions as an instrument of control over
the executive by the legislature as its annual reports are submitted
to the Governor to be laid and discussed in the State Legislative
Assembly.”
Thus, even the Lokayukt Organisation states that it is an
organisation that functions to prevent/check corruption. We may
also refer to Section 63 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
which reads as under:
“63. Establishment of Lokayukta.—Every State shall establish a
body to be known as the Lokayukta for the State, if not so
established, constituted or appointed, by a law made by the State
Legislature, to deal with complaints relating to corruption against
certain public functionaries, within a period of one year from the date
of commencement of this Act.”
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 25 of 32
Though this is a later central legislation, it is indicative of the
fact that the Lokayukt of a State is a body to deal only with
complaints relating to corruption against certain public
functionaries.
19. The SPE has been established and constituted pursuant to
the power conferred by Section 2(1) of the Act of 1947. The purpose
behind its constitution is the investigation of offences notified
under Section 3 of the Act of 1947. Notification dated 01.11.1959
by which the SPE was constituted reads as under:
“the lst November 1959-Kartika 10, 1881
NOTIFICATION
No. 111-89-I(VI) 59.-In exercise of the powers conferred by
sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Madhya Pradesh Special Police
Establishment Act, 1947 (XVII of 1947), the State Government hereby
constitutes a special police force to be called the Madhya Pradesh
Special Police Establishment for the investigation of offences which
may from time to time be specified under section 3 of the said Act.”
Section 3 of the Act of 1947 empowers the State Government
to specify the offences that can be investigated by the SPE. It reads
as under:
“3. Offences to be investigated by special police establishment:- The
State Government may, by notification, specify the offences or classes
of offences which are to be investigated by [Madhya Pradesh]
16
Special Police Establishment.”
On 01.11.1959, another Notification was issued under
Section 3 of the Act of 1947 specifying the offences that could be
16
Subs. By A.O. 1950, for Central Provinces and Berar
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 26 of 32
investigated by the SPE. The same reads as under:
“No. 113.89-I(VI)-59.-In exercise of the powers conferred by
section 3 of the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment Act,
1947 (XVIÍ of 1947), the State Government hereby specifies the
following to be the offences or classes of offences which are to be
investigated by the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment,
namely:-
(a) offences punishable under sections 161, 165 and 165-A of
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (XLV of 1860) ;
(b) offences punishable under the Prevention of Corruption
Act, 1947 (II of 1947) ;
(c) offences under sections 409 and 420 and Chapter XVIII of
the Indian Penal Code, when they are committed, attempted or
abetted by public servants or the employees of a local authority or a
statutory corporation, when such offences adversely affect the
interests of the State Government or the local authority or the
statutory corporation, as the case may be ; and
(d) attempts, abetment and conspiracies in respect of offences
mentioned in items (a) and (b) above, by whomsoever committed.”
The subsequent Notification dated 28.11.1989 issued under
Section 3 of the Act of 1947 reads as under:
“Bhopal, the 28
th November 1989
No.F.15-2(I)-89-XLIC-10.- In Exercise of the powers conferred
by Section 3 of the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment Act,
1947 (XVII of 1947), the State Government hereby specifies the
following to be the offences of classes or offences which are to be
investigated by the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment,
namely :-
a) Offences punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988 (No.49 of 1988);
b) Offences under Sections 409 and 420 and Chapter XVIII of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 (XLV of 1860) when are committed,
attempted or abetted by public servants or the employees of a
local authority or a statutory corporation, when such offences
adversely affect the interests of the State Government or the
local authority or the status corporation, as the case may be;
and
c) Conspiracies in respect of offences mentioned in items (a) above.
2. (1) The General Administration Department Notification No.113-
89-1 (VI)-59, dated the 1
st November, 1959 is hereby repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, any investigation or legal proceeding
pending on the date of commencement of the prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988 (No.49 of 1988) shall be continued as if the
repealing Notification had not been issued.
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 27 of 32
By order and in the name of the Governor of Madhya Pradesh.”
Thereafter, on 14.09.2000 the earlier Notification dated
28.11.1989 was superseded and a fresh Notification was published
in the Official Gazette. The Notification dated 14.09.2000 reads as
under:
“Notification No.F.15(1)(1)-2000-I-10 dated the 14th September,
2000.-In exercise of the powers conferred by Section 3 of the Madhya
Pradesh Special Police Establishment Act, 1947 (No.17 of 1947) and
in supersession of this Department Notification No.15(2)(1) 89-1-49-
10 dated the 28
th November, 1989, the State Government, hereby
specify the following offences to be the offences of class of offences
which are to be investigated by the Madhya Pradesh Special Police
Establishment, namely :-
(a) Offences punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988 (No.49 of 1988) :
(b) Offences under Section 409 and 420 and Chapter XVIII of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 (No.XLV of 1860) when they are committed,
attempted or abetted by Public Servants or employees of a local
authority or a statutory corporation, when such offences adversely
affect the interests of the State Government or the local authority or
the statutory corporation, as the case may be;
(c) Conspiracies in respect of offences mentioned in item (a) and (b)
above ; and
(d) Conspiracies in respect of offences mentioned in item (a) and (b)
shall be charged with simultaneously in one trial under the
provisions of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (No.2 of 1974).
[Published in M.P. Rajpatra (Asadharan) dated 14-9-2000 Pages 1099-
1100]”
Yet again on 03.05.2001, the GAD issued a fresh Notification
after superseding the earlier Notification dated 14.09.2000. The
Notification dated 03.05.2001 reads as under:
“No.15-(1)-(1)-2000-I-10.- In exercise of powers conferred by
Section 3 of the Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment Act,
1947 (No.17 of 1947) and in supersession of this Department
Notification No.15-(1)-(1)-2000-I-10, dated 14
th September, 2000, The
State Government hereby specify the following offences to be the
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 28 of 32
offences or class of offences which are to be investigated by the
Madhya Pradesh Special Police Establishment namely :
(a) Offences punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988 (No.49 of 1988) ;
(b) Offences under Section 409 and 420 and Chapter XVIII of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 (No.XLV of 1860) when they are
committed, attempted or abetted by Public Servants or employees
of a local authority or a statutory corporation, when such offences
adversely affect the interest of the Government or the local
authority or the statutory corporation, as the case may be ;
(c) Conspiracies in respect of offences mentioned in item (a) and
(b), above, and ;
(d) Conspiracies in respect of offences mentioned in item (a), (b)
and (c) shall be charged with simultaneously in one trial under the
provisions of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (No.2 of 1974).”
20. From the Notification dated 03.05.2001, it becomes clear that
offences under the Act of 1988 as well as offences under Sections
409, 420 and Chapter XVIII of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
17
committed or attempted or abetted by public servants or
employees of a local authority or a statutory corporation adversely
affecting the interest of the Government or a local authority or a
statutory corporation, as the case may be, have to be investigated
by the SPE. Conspiracies in respect of aforesaid offences are also
to be investigated by the SPE. Thus, offences or classes of offences
to be investigated by the SPE are limited to those punishable under
the Act of 1988 and under Sections 409, 420 and Chapter XVIII of
the Penal Code. The Act of 1988 seeks to prevent corruption
involving public servants. Section 409 of the Penal Code provides
17
For short, ‘the Penal Code’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 29 of 32
for punishment for criminal breach of trust by a public servant or
by a banker, merchant or agent while Section 420 provides for
punishment for cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of
property. Chapter XVIII of the Penal Code relates to offences
concerning documents and property marks. Considering the
nature of offences covered by the aforesaid provisions, t he
jurisdiction of the SPE is clearly limited. This is for the reason that
under the Act of 1981, the Lokayukt has been conferred a limited
jurisdiction to enquire into an ‘allegation’ as defined by Section 2(b)
when made against a public servant. It is, thus, clear that insofar
as issues of ‘intelligence’ and ‘security’ are concerned, neither the
Lokayukt nor the Up-Lokayukt under the Act of 1981 has been
conferred jurisdiction to make any enquiry. The various
Notifications issued by the State Government under Section 3 of
the Act of 1947 from time to time are limited to offences punishable
under the Act of 1988, Sections 409, 420 and Chapter XVIII of the
Penal Code. Though Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005 states that the
Act would apply to such ‘intelligence and security organisations’
established by the State Government as notified, the SPE though
established by the State Government, it is not empowered to
investigate any offences or classes of offences related to
‘intelligence’ and ‘security’. The sphere of operation of the SPE
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 30 of 32
constituted under the Act of 1947 would be governed and guided
only by matters that may be enquired into by the Lokayukt or Up-
Lokayukt under Section 7 of the Act of 1981. The jurisdiction, in
that sense, is limited to an allegation in relation to a public servant
in the context of the Act of 1988. The statutory scheme under
which the SPE stands constituted coupled with the jurisdiction
conferred on the Lokayukt or Up-Lokayukt clearly indicate that the
SPE cannot be termed to be an ‘intelligence and securit y’
organisation when it assists the Lokayukt or Up -Lokayukt in
matters specified by Section 7 of the Act of 1981.
21. We may note that the Allahabad High Court in Dr.Nutan
Thakur vs State of U.P., through Principal Secretary,
Department of Vigilance
18 considered the validity of Notification
dated 03.08.2012 issued by the Principal Secretary Vigilance,
Government of U.P. through which the Lokayukt agency was
brought out of the purview of the Act of 2005 in view of Section
24(4) of that Act. After considering the matter in detail, it was
found that the office of the Lokayukt had been constituted in view
of the U. P. Lokayukt and Up-Lokayukt Act, 1975
19. It was mainly
concerned with the issue of corruption of public servants as
18
Misc. Case No.1748 of 2013 decided on 02.11.2017
19
For short, ‘the Act of 1975’
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 31 of 32
defined under the Act of 1975. In the context of Section 24(4) of
the Act of 2005, it was held that the office of Lokayukt was not
concerned with the issues of ‘intelligence and security’. It was,
thus, held that the Notification dated 03.08.2012 issued by the
State Government by which the office of Lokayukt and Up -
Lokayukt was sought to be brought out of the purview of the Act
of 2005 was illegal and it travelled beyond the provisions of Section
24(4) of the Act of 2005.
Conclusion
22. Thus, having considered the entire matter, we are of the
considered opinion that the Notification dated 25.08.2011 issued
by the GAD of the State of Madhya Pradesh to the extent it seeks
to exclude the SPE from the purview of the Act of 2005 in view of
Section 24(4) thereof is liable to be set aside as being bad in law as
it provides for matters not enumerated under Section 7 of the Act
of 1947. The SPE having been conferred jurisdiction only to
investigate offences punishable under the Act of 1988, Sections
409, 420 and Chapter XVIII of the Penal Code, it cannot be termed
to be an ‘intelligence and security’ organisation for the purposes of
Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005. The Notification dated 28.05.2011
does not conform to Section 24(4) of the Act of 2005 and is, thus,
excessive in nature.
Criminal Appeal No.3743 of 2024 Page 32 of 32
Thus, while maintaining the judgment of the High Court
dated 20.12.2021 in W.P. No.1575 of 2021, the Notification dated
25.08.2011 issued by the GAD seeking to exclude the SPE from
the applicability of the provisions of the Act of 2005 is struck down.
It is clarified that we have not examined the applicability of the
said Notification vis-a-vis the State Bureau of Investigation of
Economic Offences and therefore, the said Notification shall
continue to operate to that extent.
Subject to aforesaid, the Criminal Appeal is dismissed.
Pending interlocutory applications are also disposed of.
..………………………..J.
[ J.K. MAHESHWARI ]
.…..………………………..J.
[ATUL S. CHANDURKAR]
NEW DELHI,
JUNE 15, 2026.
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