As per case facts, the Petitioner was initially arrested by NIA, which was later declared illegal by the High Court. Subsequently, he was arrested by the Enforcement Directorate in a ...
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 1 of 31
* IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI
% Reserved on: 17
th
March, 2026
Pronounced on: 29
th
May, 2026
+ CRL.M.C. 4134/2025, CRL.M.A. 6465/2026
THOKCHOM GYANESHOR
Aged about 46 years,
S/o Late Th. Ibotombi Singh,
R/o Mayang, Konchak Mamang
Leikai Imphal, Manipur– 795132 .....Petitioner
Through: Mr. Siddhartha Borgohain, Mr.
Aditya Giri, Mr. Watitemjen Jamir
and Mr. Rahul Tainguria, Advocates.
versus
1. DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEME NT
Through its Director General,
Pravartan Bhawan, APJ Abdul Kalam Road,
New Delhi- 110011
2. SHRI AMIT KUMAR
Assistant Director (STF),
Directorate of Enforcement, Delhi,
Pravartan Bhawan, APJ Abdul Kalam Road,
New Delhi- 110011 .....Respondents
Through: Mr. Zoheb Hossain, Spl. Counsel for
DoE with Mr. Vivek Gurnani, Panel
Counsel and Mr. Pranjal Tripathi,
Advocates.
CORAM:
HON'BLE MS. JUSTICE NEENA BANSAL KRISHNA
J U D G M E N T
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 2 of 31
NEENA BANSAL KRISHNA, J.
1. Criminal Miscellaneous Petition under Article 227 of the Constitution
of India read with Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita,
2023 (hereinafter “BNSS, 2023”) has been filed on behalf of the Petitioner
for declaration that Remand Orders commencing from 17.10.2024
culminating on 05.12.2024, under Section 187 BNSS; and Order dated
03.12.2024 of the learned Trial Court, is in violation of Section 197 BNSS
read with Section 44 of the Act, 2002, to be declared illegal. It is further
submitted that the Order of Cognizance dated 18.12.2024 and the
subsequent Remand Orders passed post cognizance, under S. 346 BNSS be
declared as illegal and violative of Article 14, 21 and 22(1) Constitution of
India.
2. The brief facts as stated in the Petition, are that the Central
Government on receiving reliable information in respect of transnational
conspiracy hatched by Myanmar based leadership of terror outfits who are
operationally active in North-Eastern Indian States, to exploit the current
ethnic unrest in the State of Manipur, to wage war against the Government
of India and to execute terrorist attacks thereby exacerbating the current
security situation in the State of Manipur, the MHA in exercise of its powers
conferred under sub-Section 5 of Section 6 read with Section 8 of National
Investigation Agency Act, 2008, directed NIA to take the investigations,
vide Order dated 19.07.2023.
3. In compliance thereof, NIA registered FIR No. RC/23/2023/NIA/DLI
under Section 120B, 121A & 122 IPC read with Section 18, 18B and 39 of
the UAPA, 1967. The NIA claimed that acting on credible information
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 3 of 31
received from the reliable source, the NIA was successful in apprehending
the Petitioner along with other accused, and arrest them on 13.03.2024 at
11:45 AM from Bir Tikendrajit International Airport, Imphal, Manipur.
4. On 14.03.2024 the Petitioner along with other accused, were produced
before the learned Special Court and 10 days police custody was granted to
NIA.
5. There being serious irregularities in the arrest process of the
Petitioners and non-compliance of Article 21 & 22(1) Constitution of India,
the Criminal Writ Petition No.975 of 2024, was filed before this Court.
After addressing arguments at length, the Petition was withdrawn, with
liberty to agitate these issues before the competent forum.
6. The Petitioner then filed a Writ Petition (Crl.) No.1929 of 2024 under
Article 226 Constitution of India before this Court and challenged the illegal
arrest of the Petitioner, on 13.03.2024 and also the remand Orders passed by
learned Special Judge.
7. This Court in Writ Petition (Crl.) No.1929 of 2024, vide Order dated
20.02.2024 declared the arrest of the Petitioner along with other accused by
the NIA, as illegal for non-furnishing grounds of arrest in writing and further
set aside the Remand Order dated 14.03.2024 and all other subsequent
remand, being non-est in law and directed release of the Petitioner forthwith,
in the RC.
8. Supplementary Chargesheet was filed by the NIA, against the
Petitioner under Section 120-B, 121A, 122 & 411 IPC; Section 17, 18, 18A,
18B, 20 and 38 of the UA(P) Act, 1967 and Section 25(1) of the Arms Act,
1959, in FIR No.RC-23/2023/NIA/DLI.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 4 of 31
9. An ECIR was recorded by the Respondent vide ECIR No.
ECIR/STF/15/2024 and thereafter, Addendum was issued and Respondent
initiated investigation against the Petitioner and the other accused, based on
the Supplementary Chargesheet in the NIA RC.
10. An Application under Section 50 of the Act was filed by the
Respondent on 18.09.2024 and again on 08.10.2024, seeking permission to
examine/record the statement of the Petitioner, which were allowed by the
Court.
11. Thereafter, the Petitioner was formally arrested in the ECIR by the
Respondents in Central Jail, Rohini where he was in judicial custody in
connection with RC/23/2023/NIA/DLI.
12. The Petitioner was produced before the learned JMFC, Patiala House
Court on 17.10.2024, without an Order under Section 302 BNSS, seeking
custody of the Petitioner for ten days. This illegality, however, was
overlooked by the learned JMFC, who granted remand of one day to Judicial
Custody. It was further directed that the Application be put up, before the
concerned Court on 18.10.2024.
13. The Petitioner was presented before the Special Court on18.10.2024,
on the allegations of being involved in the offence of money laundering, as
defined under Section 3 PMLA. Eight days custody of the Petitioner, was
granted to the Respondent. Thereafter, the Petitioner was produced before
learned Link Judge on 26.10.2024 and was remanded to 14 days Judicial
Custody.
14. The Order of first Remand dated 17.10.2024, has been challenged
on the ground that it is violative of Section 302 and 187 BNSS, 2023. The
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 5 of 31
Petitioner was arrested on 16.10.2024 at Rohini Jail at 12:55 PM, while he
was in the Judicial Custody, in the RC case. It is settled law that a Police
Officer can formally arrest a person in relation to an offence while he is
already in custody in a different offence, as per Section 302 BNSS (Section
267 Cr.P.C.). The Respondent wanted the production of the Petitioner and
also his custody for ten days.
15. He was thereafter, produced on 17.10.2024, without an Order of a
Competent Court, as required under Section 302 BNSS. It clearly
demonstrates that learned JMFC erred in not appreciating that the Petitioner
could not be produced on the day, prior to allowing the Application under
Section 302 BNSS. The question thus, arises under what authority of law the
Petitioner was produced, prior to an Order of the Court.
16. It is further submitted that Section 187(2) BNSS deals with the power
of the Magistrate to grant remand, irrespective of whether he has or not,
jurisdiction to try the case. Likewise, Section 19(3) of the Act, 2002
mandates that every person arrested under Sub-section (1) shall be within
twenty-four hours, produced before Special Court having appropriate
jurisdiction. This is for the reason that the liberty is paramount and any
delay would amount to its curtailment. While exercising such power, the
Magistrate has discretion, but such act is a judicial function and, therefore, a
reasoned Order indicating application of mind, is certainly warranted.
17. The law as expounded in the case of Dhanraj Aswini vs. Amar S.
Mulchandani (2024) 10 SCC 336, Anwar Ali Sarkar and A.R Antulay
(supra)is a procedural law, which is sacrosanct and cannot be tweaked or
sabotaged by the Investigating Agencies or the Courts.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 6 of 31
18. It is further asserted that the subsequent Remand Orders passed by the
Court commencing from 18.10.2024, are non-est in law, being in violation
of Articles 14, 21 & 22(1) of the Constitution of India and 187 BNSS. Also,
from the chronology of subsequent Remand Applications which commenced
from 26.10.2024, it emerges that they were all non-est in law. Reliance is
placed on Natabar Parida vs. State of Orrissa (1975) 2 SCC 220;
Singeshwar Singh & Ors. vs. State of Bihar (1975) SCC OnLine Pat 58; and
Pramod Kumar vs. State of U.P 1990 SCC OnLine All 713.
19. Reliance is also placed on Kantaru Rajeevaru (Sabarimala Temple
Review-5 J.) vs. Indian Young Lawyers Assn., (2020) 2 SCC 1, wherein the
interplay between Article 141 and Article 144 of Constitution of India, was
explained, that where the Apex Court settles a position of law or declares
through its Judgment, it has to be strictly followed throughout the territory
of India and all the authorities are bound to act in aid and to give effect to
the letter and spirit of the law, as declared by the Supreme Court.
20. In the facts of present case, it is clearly demonstrated that the
Respondents did not comply with Section 187 BNSS, thereby violated the
constitutional rights of the Petitioner. The Special Court also acted in a
cavalier/ routine manner which breached the fundamental of Judicial
Discipline and struck at the heart of the Constitution.
21. The second ground for challenge of Remand is that the Remand
Application dated 17.10.2024 under Section 187 BNSS, demonstrates that
the entire allegations and the acts were allegedly committed in the State of
Manipur, which was also recorded by the learned Trial Court. Therefore,
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 7 of 31
the proper approach would have been to file a transit remand before the
nearest Magistrate, which has not been done in the present case.
22. Section 44(1)(a) of the PMLA, 2002 mandates that the offence of
money laundering under Section 4 and related offences, must be tried by the
Special Court constituted for the area, where money laundering is
committed. Mere registration of ECIR at Delhi, based on the Supplementary
Chargesheet filed by NIA in RC-23/2023/NIA/DLI, does not confer
jurisdiction on the Delhi Courts. If the proceeds of crime have been handled
elsewhere, then Special Court designated for that area, would have the
jurisdiction. The Special Court, PMLA thus, lacked the jurisdiction to
entertain the Complaint filed by the Respondents. Since the Special Judge
lacked territorial jurisdiction, it could not have exercised lawful authority
over the matter. All the Remand Order from 17.10.2024 onwards, were
non-est in the eyes of law. Reliance is placed on Rajendra Ramchandra
Kavelkar vs. State of Maharashtra AIR 2009 SC 1792, Rana Ayyub vs.
Directorate of Enforcement (2023) 4 SCC 357.
23. The Petitioner then filed an Application under Section 197 BNSS
(erstwhile Section 177 Cr.P.C) read with Section 44(1) of the Act on
08.11.2024, seeking transfer of the case to the appropriate Special Court
having territorial jurisdiction in terms of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary vs.
Union of India (2023) 12 SCC 1 and Rana Ayyub vs. Directorate of
Enforcement (2023) 4 SCC 357, as alleged offences were committed outside
the territorial jurisdiction of the learned Court.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 8 of 31
24. The response was filed by the Respondent on 21.11.2024 stating that
the investigations in ECIR was underway and the prosecution Complaint
was yet to be filed.
25. The Application under Section 197 BNSS was dismissed by the
learned Special Judge, on 03.12.2024.
26. The next aspect under challenge is that the Order of Cognizance
dated 18.12.2024, is bad in law as no pre-cognizance hearing was given
to the Petitioner.
27. It is stated that the Prosecution Complaint under Section 44 read with
Section 45 of the PML Act was filed on 13.12.2024, against the Petitioner
and the other accused. It is asserted that the cognizance was taken on the
Complaint by the learned Judge on 18.12.2024, without due compliance
of Section 223 BNSS.
28. The Order on cognizance of the offence, dated 18.12.2024, has
been challenged, as non-est in law. It is asserted that Act 2002 is a sui
generis legislation which provides the manner in which the Special Court
created under the Act, is required to take cognizance of the offences under
Section 22 of the Act. It is stated that; firstly, the learned Special Judge
has re-legislated a new procedure with respect to taking cognizance under
the PMLA Act; and secondly, the cognizance has been taken in
contradiction of the judgments in Kushal Kumar Agarwal vs. Directorate of
Enforcement 2025 SCC OnLine SC 1221; Yash Tuteja vs. Union of India
2024 SCC OnLine SC 533 and Tarsem Lal vs. Enforcement Directorate
2024 7 SCC 61.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 9 of 31
29. The Order of Cognizance breaches the fundamental judicial
discipline and strikes at the heart of the Constitutional structure, and has to
be struck down.
30. The Petitioner has further challenged the Remand Orders post
cognizance, on the ground that once a cognizance is shown to be bad in law,
any subsequent Order of remand passed while exercising the power under
Section 346 BNSS, also becomes non-est in law. This provision is a
statutory safeguard to prevent prolonged incarceration, without proper
judicial scrutiny. Section 346(2) BNSS expressly mandates that no
Accused can be remanded to Judicial Custody, exceeding 15 days at a time.
However, the Remand has been granted beyond the permissible statutory
limit, rendering the Order ex-facie illegal and unsustainable in law.
31. The prayer is, therefore, made that the pre-cognizance Remand
Orders commencing from 17.10.2024 and culminating on 05.12.2024 made
under Section 187 BNSS, be declared as illegal. Further, the Order dated
03.12.2024 concluding that Delhi Court has jurisdiction, be declared non-
est in law. Likewise, Order dated 18.12.2024 of taking Cognizance on the
Complaint, be declared as violative of Section 223 BNSS. Further, declare
the post cognizance Remand Orders, under Section 346 BNSS, as illegal and
violative of Article 21 of Constitution of India.
32. The Respondent filed a Counter-Affidavit, wherein a preliminary
objection was taken that the impugned Orders are amenable to Revisional
jurisdiction and the present Petition under Section 528 of the Bharatiya
Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, has been filed solely to circumvent the
limitation prescribed for a Revision Petition.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 10 of 31
33. The present Petition to challenge to Cognizance Order dated
18.12.2024 and Remand Order dated 17.10.2024, has been filed on
20.06.2025 i.e. after a delay of more than 6 months and 8 months
respectively, without any explanation, whatsoever. The present Petition is
liable to be dismissed, on this ground itself.
34. Even otherwise, it is well settled that unexplained delay and laches
applies equally to Petitions invoking inherent jurisdiction of the Court and
the Petitioner cannot get away with the un-explained delay of 6/8 months,
merely by mischaracterizing the Petition, as one under Section 528 BNSS.
35. There is a statutory remedy under Section 397 and 401 Cr.P.C/438
and 440 BNSS available and therefore, this inherent jurisdiction cannot be
invoked as an alternative.
36. Reliance is placed on Vipin Sahni vs. CBI 2024 SCC OnLine SC 511
wherein it was observed that while there is no limitation period for
invocation of inherent power of High Court under Section 482 Cr.P.C. and it
can be exercised at any time. However, an Order discharging the Appellant
in the first instance, is a revisable Order. Long after the expiry of limitation
period of 90 days, the CBI chose to invoke jurisdiction under Section 482
Cr.P.C., which was obviously to get over the period of Limitation, in filing
the Revision under Section 397 Cr.P.C. It was held that when an Order is
not interlocutory in nature and can be assailed in revisional jurisdiction,
then there is a bar in invoking the inherent jurisdiction of the High Court.
37. Reliance is also placed on the case of Mohit @ Sonu vs. State of U.P.
(2013) 7 SCC 789, it was observed that the inherent powers of the Court can
be exercised, when there is no remedy provided in the Code of Criminal
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 11 of 31
Procedure for the impugned Order to be challenged, to address the
grievance.
38. A reference is also made to Padam Sen vs. State of U.P AIR 1961 SC
218 wherein the Apex Court, in the context of inherent powers under
Section 151 CPC, it was observed that “it is well recognized that the
inherent power is not to be exercised in a manner which will be contrary to
or different from the procedure expressly provided in the Code.”
39. The Constitutional Bench in the case of Manohar Lal Chopra vs. Seth
Hiralal AIR 1962 SC 527 held that the inherent power of the Court to make
Orders ex debito justitiae is undoubtedly, affirmed by Section 151 of the
Code, but it cannot be exercised so as to nullify the provisions of the Code.
Where there exists a particular Section, then such provision should normally
be regarded as exhaustive.
40. Moreover, under the pretext of challenging the cognizance and
remand Orders, the Petitioner is seeking Bail, which is not permissible under
Law.
41. Reliance is also placed on Sanyam Bhushan vs. State of NCT of Delhi
2024 DHC 4868, Sushilabai vs. The State of Maharashtra & Ors. Crl. Writ
Petition No.1703 of 2018 decided by Bombay High Court on 28.09.2022,
Neeraj Bhargava vs. State of NCT, Delhi Crl. M.C. No.3844/2015 decided
on 28.09.2015, Gopal Chauhan vs. Smt. Satya, 1979 Cri.L.J. 446 Himachal
Pradesh High Court, wherein it was held that a prayer for Bail is not
maintainable under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita,
2023 read with Article 227 Constitution of India, when a specific statutory
remedy exists.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 12 of 31
42. It is asserted that the prayer of the Petitioner for Bail under Section
528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, is wholly mis-
conceived. The statutory remedy is provided under Section 439 Cr.P.C./483
BNSS/ 45 PMLA; invocation of supervisory jurisdiction under Article 227
for seeking Bail, is impermissible in law. Reliance is placed on Surendra
Singh vs. State of Bihar 1990 SCC OnLine Pat 246.
43. It is further submitted that the Petitioner has challenged the Remand
Orders, Order dated 03.04.2024 of the Special Court disposing of the
Application of the Petitioner for committal, and Order of Cognizance dated
18.12.2024, as well as Release on Bail. The Petition is liable to be
dismissed, for mis-joinder of cause of action.
44. On merits, it is stated that there is no illegality in any of the Remand
Order, sought to be challenged. Moreover, the only method for the Petitioner
to seek relief from custody, is by way of Application for Bail, which would
be judicially adjudicated by applying the rigors of Section 45 PMLA.
Reliance is placed on Pragyna Singh Thakur vs. State of Maharashtra
(2011) 10 SCC 445; Pranab Chatterjee vs. State of Bihar (1970) 3 SCC 926,
Vijay Madanlal Chaudhary & Ors. (supra) and Tarun Kumar vs.
Enforcement Directorate 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1486.
45. Even otherwise, it is well settled that legality or otherwise, of the
custody of any person, can be considered when the Notice is made
returnable and the Respondent files a Counter-Affidavit. The Petitioner as
on today, is in custody pursuant to valid subsequent Remand Orders, which
are not under challenge and, therefore, the custody of the Petitioner cannot
be termed as illegal. Reliance is placed on Serious Fraud Investigation
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 13 of 31
Office vs. Rahul Modi (2019) 5 SCC 266 and State of Maharashtra vs.
Tasneem Rizwan Siddiquee (2018) 9 SCC 745.
46. It is explained that the learned Special Judge vide Order dated
08.10.2024, had allowed ED to examine the Accused in Jail and directed
that the Order shall remain enforceable for 10 days. During the process of
examination, Petitioner was formally arrested under Section 19 PMLA in
ECIR on 16.10.2024 at 12:55 P.M. As per Section 19(3) PMLA after his
arrest, he was produced before Special Judge, within 24 hours. The
Respondent Office had sent email dated 16.10.2024 to the Superintendent of
Jail to produce the Petitioner before the Duty Magistrate, Patiala House
Court on 17.10.2024.
47. Accordingly, Application dated 17.10.2024 was moved before the
Principal District & Sessions Judge, PMLA, PHC, New Delhi seeking
production and ED custody of the Petitioner. The judicial custody was
granted by learned Duty Magistrate vide Order dated 17.10.2024, for one
day, with direction to place the Application before the Court concerned.
48. In regard to the territorial jurisdiction, it is submitted that the Special
Judge vide detailed Order dated 03.12.2024, has come to the conclusion that
the Delhi Court has jurisdiction. The same issue cannot be raised in this
Petition, challenging the remand and the cognizance.
49. On merits, all the ground taken in the Writ Petition are denied. It is
submitted that there is no merit in the present Petition which is liable to be
dismissed.
50. The Rejoinder-Affidavit was filed on behalf of the Petitioner,
wherein the averments made in the Petition were re-affirmed.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 14 of 31
Submissions heard and record perused.
I. Whether the Present Petition under S.482, is maintainable
against the Impugned Order:
51. The preliminary objection which has been taken on behalf of the
Respondent ED is that the Order on Cognizance, is a revisable Order and
cannot be challenged by resorting to Section 482 Cr.P.C.
52. Reliance is placed on the decision of the Constitution Bench in the
case of Manohar Lal Chopra (supra) had noted that when a Revision is
instituted in the High Court, but is found to be not maintainable on one
ground or the other, the High Court may treat it as a Petition under Section
482 Cr.P.C in order to do justice in that case. However, the reverse is not
applicable as it would not be open to the High Court to blindly convert or
treat a Petition under Section 482 Cr.P.C., as one filed under Section 397
Cr.P.C without reference to other issues including limitation. When a
specific remedy of Revision is available to the CBI, it could not have been
ignored and a Petition under Section 482 Cr.P.C filed.
53. This aspect was considered in the case of Madhu Limaye v. The
State of Maharashtra (1977) 4 SCC 551, wherein the Apex Court held
that the label of a petition filed by an
aggrieved party is immaterial. The High Court can always
examine the controversy in an appropriate case in exercise
of its inherent powers.
54. This proposition of law was re-affirmed in the case of Prabhu
Chawla v. State of Rajasthan and Another (2016) 16 SCC 30. While
examining the scope of Section 482 CrPC and Section 397 CrPC, the Apex
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 15 of 31
Courtheld that nothing inCrPC, not even Section 397, can affect the amplitu
de of the inherent powers preserved in so many terms by the
language of Section 482 CrPC. The inherent powers should not invade
areas set apart for specific powers conferred
under CrPC but there is no total ban on the exercise of
inherent powers where abuse of process of Court or other extraordinary
situation warrants exercise of inherent jurisdiction.
The limitation is self-restraint, nothing more. Availability of alternative
remedy of criminal revision under Section 397 CrPC, by itself,
cannot be a good ground, to dismiss an application under Section
482 CrPC.
55. Similar observations were made by the Apex Court, in the case of
Dhariwal Tobacco Products Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra (2009) 2 SCC 370.
It was held that only because a revision petition is maintainable, the same by
itself would not constitute a bar for entertaining an Application under
Section 482 of the Code. Even where a Revision Application is barred, as
for example the remedy by way of Section 115 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, the Apex Court has held that the remedies under Articles
226/227 of the Constitution of India would be available. (See Surya Dev Rai
v. Ram Chander Raif.) Even in cases where a second revision before the
High Court after dismissal of the first one by the Court of Session, is barred
under Section 397(2)- of the Code, the inherent power of the Court has been
held to be available.
56. In CBI v. Ravi Shankar Srivastava, 2006 (7) SCC 188, the Supreme
Court while opining that the High Court in exercise of its jurisdiction under
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 16 of 31
Section 482 of the Code does not function either as a court of appeal or
revision, held:
"7. Exercise of power under Section 482 of the Code
in a case of this nature is the exception and not the rule.
The section does not confer anv new powers on the High
Court. It onlv saves the inherent power which the Court
possessed before the enactment of the Code. It envisages
three circumstances under which the inherent jurisdiction
may be exercised, namely,
(i) to give effect to an order under the Code, (ii) to
prevent abuse of the process of court, and (iii) to
otherwise secure the ends of justice. It is neither
possible nor desirable to lay down any inflexible
rule which would govern the exercise of inherent
jurisdiction. No legislative enactment dealing with
procedure can provide for all cases that may
possibly arise. The courts, therefore, have
inherent powers apart from express provisions of
law which are necessary for proper discharge of
functions and duties imposed upon them by law.
That is the doctrine which finds expression in the
section which merely recognises and preserves
inherent powers of the High Courts. All courts,
whether civil or criminal possess, in the absence
of any express provision, as inherent in their
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 17 of 31
constitution, all such powers as are necessary to
do the right and to undo a wrong in the course of
administration of justice on the principle `quando
lex aliquid alicui concedit, concedere videtur et id
sine quo res ipsae esse non potest' (when the law
gives a person anything it gives him that without
which it cannot exist). While exercising powers
under the section, the court does not function as a
court of appeal or revision. Inherent jurisdiction
under the section though wide has to be exercised
sparingly, carefully and with caution and only
when such exercise is justified by the tests
specifically laid down in the section itself. It is to
be exercised ex debito justitiae to do real and
substantial justice for the administration of which
alone the courts exist. Authority of the court exists
for advancement of justice and if any attempt is
made to abuse that authority so as to produce
injustice, the court has power to prevent abuse. It
would be an abuse of the process of the court to
allow any action which would result in injustice
and prevent promotion of justice. In exercise of
the powers the court would be justified to quash
any proceeding if it finds that
initiation/continuance of it amounts to abuse of
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 18 of 31
the process of court or quashing of these
proceedings would otherwise serve the ends of
justice. When no offence is disclosed by the
complaint, the court may examine the question of
fact. When a complaint is sought to be quashed, it
is permissible to look into the materials to assess
what the complainant has alleged and whether
any offence is made out even if the allegations are
accepted in toto."
57. Likewise, in the recent judgement of Akanksha Arora v. Tanay
Maben, 2024 INSC 962, while referring to the above discussed Judgements,
the Supreme Court revisited this aspect and reiterated that the mere
availability of a revisional remedy under Section 397 CrPC, cannot be a
ground to dismiss a petition under Section 482 CrPC. The Court held that
the nomenclature of a petition is immaterial and that the High Court, in the
interest of substantive justice, ought to either entertain the Petition under its
inherent jurisdiction or convert it into an appropriate proceeding, such as a
revision. The dismissal of a Petition solely on the ground of availability of
an alternative remedy, was characterised as hyper-technical and
unsustainable, because the same has unnecessarily compelled the appellant
to approach this court by way of this appeal filed under Article 136 of the
Constitution of India, which approach cannot be appreciated. The judicious
approach would have been to convert the petition under Section 482 Cr.P.C.
into a revision under Section 397 Cr.P.C. and decided the same as per law.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 19 of 31
58. Indisputably, issuance of summons is not an interlocutory order
within the meaning of Section 397 of the Code. While generally, the
Petitioner must follow the remedy of Revision, in accordance with law as
held in the case of Vipin Sahni (supra), Mohit @ Sonu(supra), Manohar Lal
Chopra (supra), and Padam Sen (supra), however, in the light of the
aforesaid judgements, the Petitioner cannot be non-suited on technical
grounds, especially when the challenge is to the violation of fundamental
rights and involves personal liberty of the petitioner. This objection,
therefore, has no merit.
II. Challenge to Arrest on 17.12.2024 and Pre-cognizance
Remands:
59. It has been contended on behalf of the Petitioner that he was in
Judicial Custody in the FIR case. It was claimed that the Police Officer can
formally arrest a person in relation to an offence, while he is already in
custody in a different offence, as per Section 302 BNSS. He was arrested in
this ECIR on 16.10.2024, and produced on 17.12.2024 in Rohini Court.
60. The Petitioner asserted that he could not have been arrested in this
ECIR on 16.10.2024, without the Order of the Competent Court as required
under Section 302 BNSS. Therefore, the initial arrest of the Petitioner was
without prior Application under Section 302 BNSS, and was bad in law.
61. Furthermore, Section 19(3) PMLA maintains that every person
arrested under Sub-Section 1, shall be produced before the Special Court
within 24 hours. However, neither of the procedures were followed and
therefore, the remand Orders commencing from 16.10.2024, are non-est in
law.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 20 of 31
62. It has been explained by the Enforcement Directorate that learned
Special Judge vide Order dated 08.10.2024, had allowed ED to examine the
Petitioner in Jail and the Order was enforceable for ten days. During the
process of examination, the Petitioner was formally arrested under Section
19 PMLA in ECIR on, 16.10.2024. In terms of Section 19 (3) PMLA, he
was produced before the Duty Magistrate on 17.10.2204, i.e. within 24
hours. The learned Duty Magistrate granted one day judicial remand till
18.10.2024, on which date the Petitioner was duly produced before the
learned Special Judge, PMLA.
63. The chronology of the event as explained by the ED, clearly shows
that due procedure as envisaged under Section 302 BNSS, had been duly
complied with and the remand Orders subsequent to the arrest of the
Petitioner, cannot be termed as illegal.
64. In the case of Pragyna Singh Thakur (supra), it was observed that
even if it is assumed for the sake of arguments that there was any violation
by the Police in not producing the Appellant within 24 hours of arrest, the
Appellant cannot seek to be set at liberty, on the ground of non-compliance
with Article 22(2) or Section 167(2) Cr.P.C. by the Police.
65. Therefore, this contention of the Petitioner, is without merit and does
not enure to his benefit.
III. Challenge to the Order of Cognizance dated 18.12.2024:
66. The next challenge raised by the Petitioner, is that the Order dated
18.12.2024 taking cognizance on the Complaint under Section 3 & 4 PMLA
is bad in law, since the of Ld. Special Judge, PMLA declined to give Notice
under Section 223 BNSS, before taking cognizance on the Prosecution
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 21 of 31
Complaint under PMLA, by observing that PMLA takes precedence over
the general statute and has a different process, which mandates that a pre-
cognizance hearing to the Accused was not necessary. It is submitted that
because the Petitioner has been denied a pre-cognizance hearing under
Section 223 BNSS; the impugned Order of Cognizance is bad in law.
67. The central issue is: whether the Ld. Special Judge was required to
comply with Section 223 of BNSS, 2023, before taking cognizance of the
Prosecution Complaint filed by the ED.
68. In order to appreciate this legal contention it would be pertinent to
first refer to the relevant Sections of PMLA as well as BNSS.
69. Section 44 PMLA provides that offences under PMLA shall be triable
by the Special Courts. Section 44(1)(b) empowers the Authority to file a
Complaint before a Special Court, without the Accused being committed to
it for trial. Under the proviso to Section 44(1)(b), it is open to the Authority
to submit a Closure Report before the Special Court, if no offence of money
laundering is made out, upon conclusion of the investigation.
70. Section 44(1)(c) PMLA gives an option to the Authority to file a
Complaint, to seek committal of a case relating to a scheduled offence,
which is pending before the Competent Authority to the Special Court by
way of an Application. If and when the Application is filed, the Court
dealing with the Scheduled offence, has to commit the same to a Special
Court, which shall thereafter, proceed to deal with it from the stage at which
it is committed.
71. Section 44(1)(d) PMLA is relevant for the present controversy, which
reads as under :
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 22 of 31
“44. Offences triable by Special Courts
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),
(d) a Special Court while trying the scheduled offence or
the offence of money-laundering shall hold trial in
accordance with the provisions of the Code of Crimina1
Procedure, 1 973, as it applies to a trial before a Court of
Session.”
72. Section 44(1)(d) makes the Cr.P.C (now BNSS) applicable to the trial
before the Special Court, as if it was a Court of Sessions.
73. Section 46 PMLA treats the Special Court to be deemed Court of
Sessions, wherein the provisions of Cr.P.C. (now BNSS) shall apply to the
proceedings under PMLA. Section 65 PMLA makes the provisions of
Cr.P.C (now BNSS), applicable to the proceedings under the PMLA.
74. Therefore, from the aforesaid provisions, it is evident that Cr.P.C
(now BNSS) is applicable, for the offences triable under PMLA. It now
becomes relevant to refer to the Section 223 of BNSS, which provides for
examination of the Complaint and the procedure for taking cognizance on
the Complaints. The relevant part of Section 223 of BNSS, 2023 reads as
follows:
“223. Examination of complainant -
(1)A Magistrate having jurisdiction while taking cognizance
of an offence on complaint shall examine upon oath the
complainant and the witnesses present, if any, and the
substance of such examination shall be reduced to writing
and shall be signed by the complainant and the witnesses,
and also by the Magistrate:
Provided that no cognizance of an offence shall be taken
by the Magistrate without giving the accused an
opportunity of being heard:
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 23 of 31
……….”
75. A perusal of the impugned Order dated 18.12.2024, reveals that the
Ld. Special Judge observed that Section 223 BNSS is not applicable to
PMLA Complaints, on the premise that PMLA is a special Act and the
Complainant therein, does not have the same capacity as a private
complainant under BNSS.
76. This reasoning of the Ld. Special Judge is contrary to the law settled
by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court in the case of Tarsem Lal
(supra) and Yash Tuteja (supra), held that when a Complaint under Section
46 PMLA is filed, provisions of Section 205 Cr.P.C. shall be applicable to it.
77. In Kushal Kumar Agarwal (supra), the Apex Court clarified that the
provisions of Chapter XVI of BNSS, including Section 223, apply to
Complaints under Section 44(1)(b) of the PMLA filed after 01.07.2024. The
Supreme Court specifically held that a Complaint filed by Enforcement
Directorate under Section 44(1)(b) PMLA, will be governed by Section 200
to 204 Cr.P.C. Therefore, provisions of Chapter 16 containing Section 223
to 226 shall also apply to a Complaint under Section 44 PMLA. Proviso to
Sub Section 1 of Section 223 puts an embargo on the power of the Court to
take cognizance by providing that no cognizance of an offence shall be
taken by a Magistrate, without giving the Accused an opportunity of being
heard. It was held:
“The proviso to sub-section (1) of Section 223 puts an
embargo on the power of the Court to take cognizance by
providing that no cognizance of an offence shall be taken by
the Magistrate without giving the accused an opportunity of
being heard.”
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 24 of 31
78. This aspect has been recently considered in the case of Parvinder
Singh vs. Directorate of Enforcement, 2026 INSC 59 decided by the Apex
Court on 19.02.2026, wherein the aforesaid judgments have been endorsed
and it has been reaffirmed that before taking cognizance on a Complaint
under PMLA, a pre-cognizance Notice has to be mandatorily issued to the
Accused.
79. In the present case, the Prosecution Complaint was admittedly filed
on 13.12.2024, i.e., well after the enforcement of BNSS. Therefore, the Ld.
Special Judge was duty-bound to afford the accused an opportunity of being
heard, before taking cognizance. The failure to do so and the specific finding
that Section 223 is inapplicable, renders the Order dated 18.12.2024 legally
unsustainable.
80. The Order dated 18.12.2024 of taking cognizance on the Complaint,
is hereby, set aside and the Special Judge (PMLA) is hereby, directed to
give a pre-cognizance hearing to the petitioner.
IV. Challenge to Post-Cognizance Remand from the date of
Cognizance on 18.12.2024 and thereafter:
81. The Petitioner has also challenged the Order dated 01.05.2025
whereby he was remanded to judicial custody for a period of two months.
82. It is contended that as per Section 346 BNSS which deals with post-
cognizance remand, the Petitioner could not have been remanded to Judicial
Custody for more than 15 days at a time, while in this case each remand was
more than two months. Such remand was bad in law, on this account.
83. The first proviso to Section 346(2) reads as under:
“346.----- …
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 25 of 31
Provided that no Court shall remand an accused person to
custody under this section for a term exceeding fifteen
days at a time:
…”
84. However, it may be noted that once the Order taking cognizance has
been set aside, the remand order dated 01.05.2025 is not governed by the
provision relating to post-cognizance remand; rather it is going to be
governed by the provision relating to pre-cognizance remand. The relevant
provision is thus, S. 187 BNSS (previously 167 Cr.P.C), which is extracted,
as under:
“187. Procedure when investigation cannot be completed
in twenty-four hours.
(1)Whenever any person is arrested and detained in
custody, and it appears that the investigation cannot be
completed within the period of twenty-four hours fixed by
section 58, and there are grounds for believing that the
accusation or information is well-founded, the officer in
charge of the police station or the police officer making the
investigation, if he is not below the rank of sub-inspector,
shall forthwith transmit to the nearest Magistrate a copy of
the entries in the diary hereinafter specified relating to the
case, and shall at the same time forward the accused to such
Magistrate.
(2)The Magistrate to whom an accused person is forwarded
under this section may, irrespective of whether he has or
has no jurisdiction to try the case, after taking into
consideration whether such person has not been released on
bail or his bail has been cancelled, authorize, from time to
time, the detention of the accused in such custody as such
Magistrate thinks fit, for a term not exceeding fifteen days
in the whole, or in parts, at any time during the initial
forty days or sixty days out of detention period of sixty
days or ninety days, as the case may be, as provided in sub-
section (3), and if he has no jurisdiction to try the case or
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 26 of 31
commit it for trial, and considers further detention
unnecessary, he may order the accused to be forwarded to
a Magistrate having such jurisdiction.
(3)The Magistrate may authorize the detention of the
accused person, beyond the period of fifteen days, if he is
satisfied that adequate grounds exist for doing so, but no
Magistrate shall authorize the detention of the accused
person in custody under this sub-section for a total period
exceeding-(i) ninety days, where the investigation relates to
an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term of ten years or more;(ii) sixty days,
where the investigation relates to any other offence, and, on
the expiry of the said period of ninety days, or sixty days, as
the case may be, the accused person shall be released on
bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail, and every
person released on bail under this sub-section shall be
deemed to be so released under the provisions of Chapter
XXXV for the purposes of that Chapter.
(4)….”
85. However, a bare perusal of this provision reveals that the statutory
mandate, is unambiguous. The power to remand is restricted to a maximum
of fifteen days at one time. The Ld. Special Judge’s Order remanding the
Petitioner for a period of two months, is in patent violation of the express
statutory provision contained in Section 187 of BNSS, 2023. Such an order
is ex-facie illegal and cannot be sustained.
86. Now, once the remand Order is set aside, there are two consequences
that necessarily follow.
87. First and foremost, after the cognizance is taken, the Petitioner was
necessarily required to be remanded to judicial custody, under Section 346
BNSS. When the Order of Cognizance is set aside, the post- cognizance
remand under Section 346, cannot be held to be bad in law.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 27 of 31
88. This was explained by the Supreme Court in the case of Suresh
Kumar Bhikamchand Jain vs. State of Maharashtra (2013) 3 SCC 77 in the
context of default being under Section 167(2)(a)(ii), that the powers for
remand pre-cognizance was under Section 167 Cr.P.C., while post-
cognizance it was under Section 309 Cr.P.C. It was held that if the
cognizance is not taken and the person is remanded to custody beyond a
period of 60 days, this power is deemed to have exercised under Section 167
Cr.P.C.
89. The Supreme Court in, Natabar Parida & ors. v. State of Orissa,
(1975) 2 SCC 220 held that, once cognizance is taken or the trial
commences, the power to remand the accused shifts from Section 167
[corresponding to section 187 B.N.S.S.], to Section 309(2) [corresponding
to section 346(2) B.N.S.S.], of the Code. Under the first proviso to Section
309(2), no single remand may exceed fifteen days at a time. Further, the
custody contemplated by Section 309 is judicial custody alone and not
police custody, the object being that after the commencement of inquiry or
trial the accused ought not to remain under police influence.
90. The second aspect is what are the consequences of the remand being
more than 15 days, at one instance. It may be noted that there was no
objection taken to the long remand by the Petitioner, despite being presented
on every date. Secondly, it may observed that under the old Cr.P.C., the
post-cognizance remand was under Section 309 Cr.P.C, wherein there was
no limitation on the period of remand provided. The Court of Sessions
could give post-cognizance remand for any number of days. The Sessions
Judge under the PMLA enjoys the status of Sessions Judge.
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 28 of 31
91. It is no doubt, true that the position of law has been changed by the
Section 346 BNSS, which has put an embargo on post-cognizance remand
by any Trial Court being more than 15 days and, therefore, on account of
change of law apparently, there still remains some confusion with the Trial
Courts. Be as it may, this can never be a ground to discount any specific
provisions of law.
92. In the given circumstances, the Accused may claim a right to Bail; but
till then, his Judicial Custody has to be extended, in accordance with law.
93. In the present case, the Petitioner had not been granted Bail, and in
such a situation there was no option, but to remand him to Judicial Custody.
There may have been a violation of the number of days, but it cannot be held
to be a patent illegality or a ground of release. It is a mere irregularity on
which the Petitioner may seek Bail, but no such relief can be granted in
exercise of the jurisdiction under Section 482 Cr.P.C.
94. The Petitioner is at liberty to move an Application for Bail on the
ground of the over-extended post-cognizance remand, for a period beyond
the period specified by the Legislature.
95. The Counsel for the Respondent has also argued that the delay and
laches on the part of the Petitioner, while invoking the inherent
jurisdiction of this Court, is also as aspect to be considered.
96. In the case of State of U.P. vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh (2021) 19 SCC
706, it was observed that no prejudice is caused to a person complaining of
the breach of natural justice, which such person does not dispute the case
against him. This can happen by reason of estoppel, acquiescence, waiver
and by way of non-challenge or non-denial or admission of facts, in cases in
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 29 of 31
which the Court finds on facts, that no real prejudice has been caused to the
person complaining of breach of natural justice.
97. The petitioner, herein has been transferred to Guwahati, vide Order
dated 23.07.2025, wherein he is in judicial custody of the Guwahati Court.
The Petitioner may have been remanded for extended period between
January, 29 till he was shifted to Guwahati, beyond 15 days, as is permitted,
but neither the Petitioner had raised any objection nor any prejudice has
consequently, been caused to the Petitioner. There exists no ground to quash
the Complaint.
V. Whether petitioner is entitled to be released on Bail:
98. The Petitioner has contended that since his fundamental rights under
Article 14, 21 and 22(1) have been violated, he be released on Bail.
99. In this context, reference be made to Union of India vs. Kanhaiya
Prasad 2025 SCC OnLine SC 306, wherein it has been reiterated that
Section 45 of PMLA starts with a non-obstante clause and has an overriding
effect on the general provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure in case of
conflict between them. Section 45 imposes two conditions for the grant of
bail to any person, accused of an offence punishable under PMLA which are
: (i) the prosecutor must be given an opportunity to oppose the application
for bail; and (ii) the Court must be satisfied that there are reasonable ground
to believe that the accused person is not guilty of such offence and that he is
not liable to commit any offence while on bail.
100. Similar observations have been made by the Three Judge Bench in the
case of Vijay Madan Lal Choudhary (supra) that PMLA is a special
legislation to deal with the subject of money laundering activities, having
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 30 of 31
trans-national impact on the financial systems including sovereignty and
integrity of the country. It is no ordinary offence. To deal with such serious
offence, stringent provisions are provided in 2002 Act including for
attachment and confiscation of proceeds of crime and to prosecution the
person involved in the process or actively connected with the proceeds of
crime. The twin conditions under Section 45 PMLA though restrict the right
of the accused to grant of Bail, but it cannot be said that these conditions
impose absolute restraint on the grant of Bail. The Court while dealing with
the Application for Bail, need not get deep into the merits of the case, but
will have to weigh the evidence to conclude whether the twin conditions of
Section 45 PMLA are satisfied while granting Bail.
101. Similar observations have been made by the Supreme Court in Tarun
Kumar vs. Directorate of Enforcement 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1486.
102. Therefore, no Bail can be granted in the present facts and
circumstances, but the Petitioner is at liberty to move an appropriate
Application for Bail and agitate these grounds, for seeking Bail.
103. It is also significant to refer to Lakshay Vij vs. Directorate of
Enforcement Crl. M.C.246/2025; Gaurav Khurana and Anr. vs. E.D.
Crl.M.C.2412/2025, Radhika Chanana vs. ED Crl. M.C.3164/2025; Hemant
Dahiya & Anr. vs. Directorate of Enforcement Crl. M.C.351551/2025;
Mudit Aggarwal vs. Directorate of Enforcement Crl. M.C.3564/2025;
Jaspreet Singh Bagga vs. Directorate of Enforcement Crl. M.C.1458/2025
while setting aside the Order on Cognizance on the ground of no hearing
granted under Section 223 BNSS, it has been observed that the Bail
CRL.M.C.4134/2025 Page 31 of 31
Applications, if any, may be moved by the Petitioner in the Trial Court,
which shall be decided on their own merits.
104. It is evident that while the remand has been challenged, it cannot be a
ground to forthwith release of the Petitioner for which he is at liberty to
move the Bail Application.
Conclusion:
105. In view of the aforesaid, the Order dated 18.12.2024, taking
cognizance on the Complaint, is hereby, set aside and the ld. Special Judge
(PMLA) is directed to give a hearing to the Petitioner, before proceeding to
take cognizance. The petitioner is at liberty to seek bail, in accordance with
law. The pending Application(s) are disposed of, accordingly.
(NEENA BANSAL KRISHNA)
JUDGE
MAY 29, 2026/va
Legal Notes
Add a Note....